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In the Book of Mormon it is prophesyed that it will be brought forth unto the descendants of the Lamanites by the gentiles. Yet in modern day, we know that the house of Israel is being gathered and the early days of the church it was primarily Ephraim. Joseph Smith himself is of the house of Ephraim hence the "stick of Joseph" thing. So why does it refer to them as the gentiles. I know that sometimes gentiles can mean those without the gospel, even if they are decendants of Isreal. In that case however, the Lamanite descendants would also be gentiles right? Yet it disctinctly says that by the gentiles will the Book of Mormon be brought to the house of Isreal. How to interpret?
