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I'm a recent convert and have understood that Joseph Smith's vision of the Father and Jesus Christ was a spiritual experience. Alot like the brother of Jared's vision of the Finger of the Lord and then His image. Ether 3:6 says, "And the veil was taken from off the eyes of the brother of Jared, and he saw the finger of the Lord;" I have been very surprised by the number of long-time church members that truly believe that the First Vision was a literal, "with human eyes", human-to-God experience. Every testimony meeting members state, "I believe Joseph Smith saw Jesus Christ and Heavenly Father." I hear Stake Presidents, Bishops, Seventies, Apostles, and even the church Presidency use those words. When I shared my beliefs about the First Vision later, a sister in my ward was very aggressive that my belief was incorrect and that all LDS believed it was a literal "seeing". Later, I talked to a long-time seminary teacher and was told that my understanding was corrrect. That it was a "vision" seen through spiritual eyes. So if it was a spiritual "unveiling" to allow JS to see them, why do church members and leaders routinely say that he "SAW THEM" instead of "SAW THEM IN A VISION?" Obviously, everyone's understanding of the event is not the same. Has the abbreviated testimony "SAW" instead of "SAW IN VISION" confused alot of people? Joseph Smith himself NEVER claimed to have a literal sighting but a VISION, at least, in all I've read in my short time as a church member. Would love to hear some of you more seasoned members comment on this.