Maxel Posted November 24, 2009 Report Share Posted November 24, 2009 I like to make comparisons between what we know about the Nephite system of law and America's. For a while, Alma 30:9-10 has interested me: 9 Now if a man desired to serve God, it was his privilege; or rather, if he believed in God it was his privilege to serve him; but if he did not believe in him there was no law to punish him. 10 But if he murdered he was punished unto death; and if he robbed he was also punished; and if he stole he was also punished; and if he committed adultery he was also punished; yea, for all this wickedness they were punished.I've always thought that the system of Nephite law was inspired of God (like the Constitution) and therefore secured the natural rights of the Nephites. I've been wondering about how, exactly, committing adultery would justifiably be a criminal offense (listed among murder and robbery). The only thing I can think of similar in American jurisprudence are the now-abolished anti-sodomy laws (which dealt with a specific type of fornication and not adultery in general).Anyone have insight, thoughts, or questions? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TheMightyQuinn Posted November 24, 2009 Report Share Posted November 24, 2009 My guess is it would be seen as a violation of oath or contract. The Nephites (and even the wicked Lamanites) took their oaths very seriously, and would rather die than violate an oath. Adultery would have probably been seen as a violation of an oath or contract made to the spouse, hence a punishable offense. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vort Posted November 24, 2009 Report Share Posted November 24, 2009 Laws exist so that society can live peaceably. No laws = no society = savagery.The basis of society is the family. The basis of the family is the married couple. Therefore, there is little that is more destructive to society than adultery.In point of fact, anti-adultery laws have existed through the ages of human society, but have rarely been enforced against women and almost never against men. The existence of such laws, even when not enforced, is an open acknowledgement of the society that adultery is a bad and destructive thing that ought not to be tolerated, even when it is.A society that tolerates or, especially, encourages adultery will reap the whirlwind, as we see daily. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Maxel Posted November 24, 2009 Author Report Share Posted November 24, 2009 Quinn and Vort, you guys both make a lot of sense. Going on what Quinn said- if adultery were a violation of contract, then that would mean marriage was a legally recognized and maintained institution (not surprising, since a majority of the Nephites when the law was established were Christians). Is it only a fallen and hard-hearted people who won't openly and legally admit marriage is a serious and binding contract? This strikes a consonant cord with what we're seeing discussed on the national stage with the same-sex marriage debate. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DigitalShadow Posted November 24, 2009 Report Share Posted November 24, 2009 This may sound like a silly question, but I've only had 1.5 hours of sleep so my mind is still a bit fuzzy. Does the term adultery include sex where neither party is married, or is it only when one or both are married but not to each other? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vort Posted November 24, 2009 Report Share Posted November 24, 2009 Married. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lost87 Posted November 24, 2009 Report Share Posted November 24, 2009 this is what came to my mind when I read the OP.... When you are married legally within the US you not only make a commitment to your spouse, but you make a legal contract with the government regarding that union. Thats why we sign a marriage license. Any other time you break a legal contract with the government...i.e. taxes, identification records, voter registration...all of those little things...any infringement of the contract is a punishable crime...you can spend serious time for fraud or purgory, or any number of crimes related to breaking a contract with the government....in that case, why should breaking your marriage contract which is a legal and government upheld commitment be any different? I think it would be feasible to say that adultry was a crime if you looked at it in this light Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DigitalShadow Posted November 24, 2009 Report Share Posted November 24, 2009 Married.In that case, I am for it being illegal, for more or less the arguments you laid out. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vort Posted November 24, 2009 Report Share Posted November 24, 2009 In that case, I am for it being illegal, for more or less the arguments you laid out.In this context, it might be worth noting that under the law of Moses, the penalty for adultery was death by stoning. The penalty for (unmarried) fornication was that you had to marry the girl.Some might question why the penalty for fornication should be more severe than that for adultery. But not me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DigitalShadow Posted November 24, 2009 Report Share Posted November 24, 2009 In this context, it might be worth noting that under the law of Moses, the penalty for adultery was death by stoning. The penalty for (unmarried) fornication was that you had to marry the girl.Some might question why the penalty for fornication should be more severe than that for adultery. But not me.Bah, there's no laugh button the the Gospel forum. Took me reading your post over a few times before I got it though :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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