Two Questions


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I have two questions they are unrelated but I thought I would save a post.

1. Was the office of High Priest during the time Mosaic Law a Melchizedek Priesthood office or Aaronic?

2. How was the Adam-God theory supposed to have made sense? I've tried to wrap my head around it and I can't find a way it was supposed to have made sense.

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I have two questions they are unrelated but I thought I would save a post.

1. Was the office of High Priest during the time Mosaic Law a Melchizedek Priesthood office or Aaronic?

As far as I can tell, it didn't exist under the Mosaic Law. It appears that at that time, you either held the Melchizedek Priesthood, or you didn't. Also note that under the Mosaic law, there doesn't appear to be any evidence of deacons or teachers. To a certain degree, the offices in the respective priesthoods are arbitrary, and may be redefined as needed to suit the needs of the time.

2. How was the Adam-God theory supposed to have made sense? I've tried to wrap my head around it and I can't find a way it was supposed to have made sense.

Good. It's better that way.

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Guest mysticmorini

1. the priesthood is organized in whatever way it best suits the people. if you remember the early days of the church Joseph Smith and Oliver Cowdry were ordained as the 1st and 2nd elders of the church and not as presidents, that came later.

2. one explanation that helped me understand it: Adam is a title meaning "first man" or something similar so when BY was talking about adam he was using the name as a title. even with that im still a little fuzzy but i have faith all will be made clear when man is ready to receive a full understanding of things.

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The High Priest under the Mosaic Law was in the Aaronic Priesthood. It is what, today, we would call the Presiding Bishop of the Church.

The high priest's role was to officiate in the work of the Aaronic Priesthood within the temple (sacrifices, annually entering into the Holy of Holies to obtain the atonement for the people, etc).

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I have two questions they are unrelated but I thought I would save a post.

1. Was the office of High Priest during the time Mosaic Law a Melchizedek Priesthood office or Aaronic?

Not sure, but most of the positions given in the mosaic law is for what would be considered aaronic priesthood.

I'm not sure on that tho.

2. How was the Adam-God theory supposed to have made sense? I've tried to wrap my head around it and I can't find a way it was supposed to have made sense.

It's to short to make much sense any which way... I sometimes wonder if it was given to cause fence sitter people either to go to the Lord to have their faith strengthened, or to weed them out of the church if they couldn't bring themselves to do that..

We do know that we are gods.. and that Adam had the priveledge of being the one to bring about the race of man.. which I suppose is a form of creating.

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Guest mysticmorini

We do know that we are gods.. and that Adam had the priveledge of being the one to bring about the race of man.. which I suppose is a form of creating.

NOT are... May become as not all of us will.
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I have two questions they are unrelated but I thought I would save a post.

1. Was the office of High Priest during the time Mosaic Law a Melchizedek Priesthood office or Aaronic?

2. How was the Adam-God theory supposed to have made sense? I've tried to wrap my head around it and I can't find a way it was supposed to have made sense.

Answer to #1: To understand covenant law (Mosaic) it helps to understand ancient Suzerain Law. Suzerain Law defines a kingdom and the Mosaic Law more specifically defines the kingdom of G-d as it was established with Israel following the dispensation of Moses. First of all – the priesthood was not Aaronic. To better understand exactly what was occurring one must understand that all priesthood within the kingdom of G-d is Melchizedek. Under the specific Law of Moses the priesthood was called the Levitical Priesthood but was still an appendage to the Melchizedek priesthood.

The term “High Priest” under the Levitical Priesthood was not a priesthood office similar to the quorum of High Priest within the fullness of the Melchizedek Priesthood. Equating a Levitical High Priest to a Melchizedek Priesthood is an error in transliteration of ancient scripture text. Under the Levitical Priesthood the term “High Priest” meant presiding priest and was a title given not to all members of a quorum (as per the Melchizedek Priesthood) but to the single individual that presided over all the priests within the suzerain kingdom. Also under the Mosaic Law only direct decedents of Aaron within the tribe of Levi could be ordained to the Levitical Priesthood.

Answer to #2: Also to understand the “Adam – G-d” theory one must again reference the ancient Suzerain Law of Kingdoms. In particular how we understand suzerain law in connection to the kingdom of heaven over which G-d the Father presides as the supreme suzerain. Under ancient suzerain law the vassals of the supreme suzerain were given titles of suzerain. Thus the supreme suzerain becomes the “L-rd of L-rds” and “King of Kings” and even “G-d of G-ds” and his vassals become L-rds, Kings and G-ds in the kingdom.

All of mankind under the covenants of G-d is called the sons of Adam or sons of man. Specific to an individual under “mortal” covenant to come to earth do so as a “son of man”. The appointment over all mankind as a vassal to the supreme Suzerain, Adam holds a rightful title. Brigham Young recognized the position of Adam, especially in an eternal office over all mankind that come to earth under the covenant of mortality with G-d the Father (Suzerain).

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2. How was the Adam-God theory supposed to have made sense? I've tried to wrap my head around it and I can't find a way it was supposed to have made sense.

Some speculations just hit a theological dead end due to their inherent flaws in reasoning.

Also, the Levites were priests after the order of Aaron.

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2. How was the Adam-God theory supposed to have made sense? I've tried to wrap my head around it and I can't find a way it was supposed to have made sense.

There is no easy way to understand this theory, as Brigham Young was not always entirely clear on the things he taught. Also, we do not know if Brigham Young fully understood the concept he was trying to teach. He may have had a portion of the truth, and attempted to teach it on the level he understood.

That said, some scholars believe that there are Two Adams in the story. This concept that God is Adam, and the mortal Adam also is Adam is found in some ancient Jewish texts.

Most scholars, however, consider it something to leave on the shelf, until we know more. That's how I look at it. There isn't enough data, so all we could possibly do is speculate. Of course, without new revelation explaining it, that's all we could do is speculate. Since I'm not interested in always learning but never coming to a knowledge of the truth, I leave it on the shelf of unresolved mysteries.

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