Still_Small_Voice Posted January 7, 2012 Report Share Posted January 7, 2012 I read the following and wondered how much of if it was true. Can anyone shed some more light?Rodney Stark wrote a book called "God's Battalions" that gave an account of the Crusades. One of the reasons we speak English in the U.S. today is because of the Crusades which prevented Europe from a take over of the Middle East. Islam was in Jerusalem, Spain, France and Constantinople. This is because Europe had been under attack for centuries by the Middle East and they finally responded with military assaults because pilgrims to Israel were being attacked and killed. The Crusades drove the Middle East influence out of Europe. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
annewandering Posted January 8, 2012 Report Share Posted January 8, 2012 (edited) Interesting take on the crusades. From what I remember of my history it's a 'little' biased toward the Christians on Crusade. It is stretching it a bit to say the crusades prevented the Islamic overtake of Spain and the western end of Europe. If anything they most likely aggravated the Muslims solidifying the Jihad to strike back at the Christians attacking them on the way to Jerusalem and if they made it, in Jerusalem itself. My teacher was big on this whole crusade thing. It is my impression, and remember I went to college a long time ago, that the Basques had more to do with the defeat of the Moors than anyone. Yes the Christians, Jews and Muslims did tend to be in a constant battle for Jerusalem, which is the overt reason for the Crusades. A more accurate reason was a desire for loot. Some honestly went for the Holy Cause but I doubt there were many. Mostly the crusades went east, not west, in large part because of the riches in Constantinople. I read your post to my husband and he thought the writer of the book was quite humorous. Which was pretty much my reaction. Edited January 8, 2012 by annewandering Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Just_A_Guy Posted January 8, 2012 Report Share Posted January 8, 2012 Invasion of Gaul (France): c. AD 700.First Crusade: A.D. 1095.It seems chronologically impossible to suggest that Islamic expansion into Europe or the Byzantine empire was some kind of response to the Crusades per se. But it's probably overly simplistic to also assert that the Crusades were purely defensive in nature; given that Muslims had dominated the Holy Land for nearly four centuries prior to Urban's decree. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dravin Posted January 8, 2012 Report Share Posted January 8, 2012 Invasion of Gaul (France): c. AD 700.Do you mean Iberia (Spain)? Or do I have a serious gap in my history knowledge? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Just_A_Guy Posted January 8, 2012 Report Share Posted January 8, 2012 From Iberia they pressed on into Gaul and penetrated pretty deeply, as per Wikipedia. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Still_Small_Voice Posted January 8, 2012 Author Report Share Posted January 8, 2012 It appears to me with some reading that the Crusades had no relation to the presence of Muslims in Europe. The Crusade assaults appear to have been focused on outside Europe.300,000 Muslims were expelled from Spain around the years 1609 to 1614 A.D. But this had nothing to do with the Crusades. Thanks for the input everyone.Morisco - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
volgadon Posted January 8, 2012 Report Share Posted January 8, 2012 One of the reasons we speak English in the U.S. today is because of the Crusades which prevented Europe from a take over of the Middle East.It really doesn't explain why English and not French. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rameumptom Posted January 9, 2012 Report Share Posted January 9, 2012 The Crusades ended long before Spain kicked the Moors out (1492). The key concept behind the Crusades was the desire of the Popes involved to unite the Christian nations, and keep them fighting amongst themselves. It also focused power in the Papacy, which had lost much power among the various European nations. In fact, some nations used the papacy as a form of political power, such as when in the Middle Ages Germany descended into Italy and placed their own Pope in place, etc. The concept behind the Crusades was not to protect pilgrims, but to regain the Holy Land. Of course, some Crusades didn't accomplish that, like the one that sacked Constantinople (Eastern Orthodox Christian), instead of Jerusalem. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RescueMom Posted January 9, 2012 Report Share Posted January 9, 2012 This always makes me wonder why Vlad was given such a bad rap...the people he put on stakes were the Ottoman Empire who were on an Islamic Crusade to take over Europe. But there we have it...Vlad became Dracula and then incarnated into some evil personage. He was one of the main reasons Islam didn't spread faster into Europe, and did it against the Popes wishes...which again seems odd. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Captain_Curmudgeon Posted January 9, 2012 Report Share Posted January 9, 2012 The concept behind the Crusades was not to protect pilgrims, but to regain the Holy Land. Of course, some Crusades didn't accomplish that, like the one that sacked Constantinople (Eastern Orthodox Christian), instead of Jerusalem.Or the one that landed in France and killed off Christians. Or the one that never got underway but resulted in many thousand Christian children being sold into slavery (in France, again).Rodney may have the "brief" part down pretty good. Less successful with the "history." Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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