Guest Mores Posted May 19, 2019 Report Share Posted May 19, 2019 (edited) Here's a bit of detail I'd like to see in the studies of supposedly "heterosexual men who commit pederasty". How many of them molest males exclusively? How much of that is due to access and availability? How many molest both sexes equally? This seems to be a key to giving credibility to the idea that a heterosexual man sexually abuses boys because of control and not due to sexual preference. Edited May 19, 2019 by Mores Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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