If Jesus Was a Jew, Why Isn’t Judaism the Answer?


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Such an interesting question! I also think about why the Jews don't recognise Jesus as their Messiah, I mean they were there, its their prophesies that foretell the coming of the messiah, yet they 100% believe it's not Jesus.

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.“If Jesus was a Jew, why isn’t Judaism the answer?“

Judaism was the answer for a long long time. But it was only a part of the overall plan as humanity continued to grow. It could not be the final answer, because not everyone was going to have access to the Abrahamic covenant.  It was fine for the people at the time, who didn’t have access to refrigeration or modern health practices or stuff like that.  Humanity can only progress so far while it’s still offering blood sacrifices and not pooping on the sabbath, etc.

Analogous to how a human child goes through stages of maturity, marked by ceremony and change in behavior, humanity did too. Children move through things like like bar mitzvahs and drivers licenses and first jobs and moving out and getting married. Humanity has things like blood sacrifice being replaced with a broken heart and a contrite spirit, temples here then gone then back again, the post savior coming to earth and atoning for us world calls for different practices and rules.

if you ask Jewish folks what life will be like after the Messiah comes, they will probably speculate about a bunch of things that will be different too.

Edited by NeuroTypical
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The Jews stepped out of the Way. Jesus taught that he is The Way, the early followers of Christ called themselves, Followers of the Way. The Christian moniker was a derogatory term for the followers of Jesus and eventually it was adopted as the descriptor as the church slid into apostacy. 

Genesis 3:24

Genesis 18:19

Acts 9:1-2

Acts 19:9

Acts 22:4

Acts 24:14

Acts 24:22

As President Nelson said, "keep on the covenant path" or keep on 'The Way.' Stop worrying about calling ourselves "christians" and focus on staying in 'The Way' the the Tree of Life.

 

 

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10 hours ago, clbent04 said:

If Judaism was good enough for Jesus to follow, why don’t we?

It is my opinion that your question is flawed in many ways.  I do not believe that "good enough" is much of an answer to hardly anything but rather it is more of an excuse.  As we search for truth in this mortal existence we never find it all in some mother load lump - rather I believe we obtain nuggets hear and there.  Scripture references this process as line upon line upon line and precept upon precept upon precept.  So I see the idea of 'good enough" and the abandonment of the quest for truth.  Jesus describes this process in parable indicating that as we accept truth more is added and when we quit accepting truth we will lose what we have gained. 

Lets take a look at Jewism.  The truth of Jewism was not meant for Juda alone but for all the 12 patriarchs of Israel.  But according to prophesy the truths of the patriarchs of Israel was scattered in the world -- specifically among the Gentiles.  The line of the truth of the patriarchs of Israel did not come initially from Jacob but Jacob received it from his fathers - Isaac and Abraham.  But Abraham was not the source but rather he received it from Melchizedek.  I would pause for a moment with Melchizedek because we learn in scripture that Jesus was ordained a High Priest after the Order of Melchizedek.  This indicates that the greater parcel came to Jesus as a restoration of something that was missing since Melchizedek -- which in turn indicates that Judaism by itself was not really "good enough".    This simple truth is already referenced by other answers in this thread.

Melchizedek was not a source but rather obtained his truth from Noah and Noah from his fathers through Enoch (referenced in the New Testament) to Adam that received his truth from the Son of G-d, Jehovah (who is Jesus).  Jesus is referred to as the Messiah or Christ which means "anointed".  Which anointing we have no reference yet in this mortal existence and the scripture and revelations we have been given.  This indicates that there is yet more to be given before we have "enough" for the return of the Messiah and the thousand years of peace. 

Another phrase used in science is "necessary and sufficient".  It is interesting to me that the terms "necessary and sufficient" indicates that we have "enough" to obtain other truths through means of rational deduction.  What is interesting to me concerning this is that Jesus often spoke in terms of rational deduction in addressing the Scribes and Pharisees (which were the reference of the knowledge of the Jews of his coming to us in mortality).  And yet many, in discussing religious truths shy away from rational deduction as a tool of the adversary.  I believe that we are to understand is that it is the adversary that utilizes corrupted or flawed logic - not those that bring the light of truth.

I believe that those that come to the truth of science or religion with the attitude of including for themselves that which is good enough are exercising corrupted or flawed logic - which I believe is the tool of the adversary.

 

The Traveler 

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12 hours ago, clbent04 said:

If Judaism was good enough for Jesus to follow, why don’t we?

If obeying the civil law is good enough for Jesus, why don't we obey the civil law?

We do obey the civil law.  But on top of that we also obey a higher law that takes us closer to exaltation than the civil law alone.

Jesus obeyed the civil law of both the Romans and the Jews.  But he also obeyed a higher law.  In fact, He asked others to do the same.

Matt 5:21-48

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18 hours ago, Anddenex said:

Was Moses a Jew?

This is a semantic question.

Jews today are the remaining tribes of Israel.  They are largely of the tribe of Judah.  But those few that are with other tribes are part of those numbered among the Jews.

Most Jews today hold that either Abraham or Moses was the first Jew.

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5 hours ago, JohnsonJones said:

No.

Jews are part of the Tribe of Judah.  It is a slang/shortened term for the members of the Tribe of Judah.  Moses was not part of that Tribe.

Correct, and that was the point of the question. Saying Judaism is good enough for Christ, why not us, is inherently a flawed question to try to prove a point.

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Judaism is only called Judaism because they were the remaining tribe that kept the records in that part of the world, and the tribe our Savior was prophesied to be born and raised in.

Judaism being "good enough" for Christ is an awkward question that is flawed. Good enough meaning....?

Judaism was the only religion, people, who would crucify their God. Is that what this question means by good enough? It was "good enough" because they crucified him?

Judaism is the same religion followed by the Nephites and Lamanites (or at least should have been without apostacy from the children of Israel). So, was it Judaism that was good enough? Did the Nephites and Lamanites call their religion "Judaism"? Or was it the teachings of Moses from the Lord who wasn't a Jew that the children of Israel (not just the Jews) were to follow? Was it Judaism when Moses created the laws that the Israelites were to follow?

As already pointed out the Lord came to fulfill the law, and fulfill it he did. The scriptures are clear also, after what name should "Christ's" Church be known? Judaism? No. After his name. So to say, Judaism was good enough once again is an inherently flawed question.

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1 hour ago, Carborendum said:

This is a semantic question.

Jews today are the remaining tribes of Israel.  They are largely of the tribe of Judah.  But those few that are with other tribes are part of those numbered among the Jews.

Most Jews today hold that either Abraham or Moses was the first Jew.

Semantic...no.

Abraham couldn't have been a Jew. Jew is from Judah. Judah is the great grandson of Abraham. Abraham wasn't a Jew as Abraham followed a "higher law" not the lesser law which was given through Moses to the children of Israel. So there was no Judaism with Abraham, Isaac, or Jacob as all followed a higher law at the time. Judaism is represented of the lesser law.

The point of the question, was to highlight the difference between Judaism and Moses (who obviously wasn't part of Judaism). It would be similar to saying Catholics today are no different than the Protestant Christians of our day. Catholics were the first Protestant Christians? They weren't. Or even more highlighted, Catholics today who say the Apostles were the first Catholics. Were they?

So no matter what we "hold" as true, doesn't make it accurate as with saying Abraham or Moses (who were both higher law followers, Moses himself subjecting to the will the Lord followed the mandated lesser law although fully capable and probably did follow the higher law as well. If records are true, which I can't see why not, that he eventually was translated). It wasn't "Judaism" that Moses instituted, otherwise, do you consider the Nephites to be part of the Judaic religion?

Edited by Anddenex
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4 hours ago, Anddenex said:

The point of the question, was to highlight the difference between Judaism and Moses (who obviously wasn't part of Judaism).

That's a reasonable point.  But it is still a matter of semantics.

Quote

So no matter what we "hold" as true, doesn't make it accurate .

This is true.  But when the very people who are called Jews are the ones defining it, we have to allow that theirs is a valid definition.

Edited by Carborendum
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