askandanswer Posted March 5, 2023 Report Share Posted March 5, 2023 From our Sunday School lesson today: 14 ¶ And when Jesus was come into Peter’s house, he saw his awife’s mother blaid, and sick of a fever. Every time I’ve heard this scripture referred to, its always been assumed that the sick person referred to is Peter’s mother in law. However, the way this verse is worded, that is not a reliable assumption. The reference to “his wife’s mother” could just as easily refer to Christ’s wife as it is could Peter’s. Does anyone know of a reliable version/language/edition of the New Testament that makes it completely clear whose mother in law is being referred to here? Vort 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
zil2 Posted March 5, 2023 Report Share Posted March 5, 2023 FWIW, from this page, you can get to this page about the Greek that was translated as "his", which has "Strong's Definitions", which suggests this would not be reflexive of the subject (Christ), but of a person previously referenced (would have to be Peter) - if I'm reading it right. askandanswer 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Carborendum Posted March 5, 2023 Report Share Posted March 5, 2023 4 hours ago, askandanswer said: 14 ¶ And when Jesus was come into Peter’s house, he saw his awife’s mother blaid, and sick of a fever. ...The reference to “his wife’s mother” could just as easily refer to Christ’s wife as it is could Peter’s. Context. Verse 15. Quote 15 And he touched her hand, and the fever left her: and she arose, and ministered unto them. It was Peter's house. Was Jesus' wife's mother part of Peter's household? If not, why would she specifically minister to them instead of the women of the house? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
zil2 Posted March 5, 2023 Report Share Posted March 5, 2023 Meanwhile, apparently pronouns have been causing problems for centuries! Anddenex, mirkwood and askandanswer 3 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
askandanswer Posted March 6, 2023 Author Report Share Posted March 6, 2023 7 hours ago, zil2 said: Meanwhile, apparently pronouns have been causing problems for centuries! I'm definetely pro-noun, I think they have a very important role in English grammar. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
zil2 Posted March 6, 2023 Report Share Posted March 6, 2023 1 hour ago, askandanswer said: I'm definetely pro-noun, I think they have a very important role in English grammar. Har. (Sorry, it was only worth one har, not two.) Carborendum 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
askandanswer Posted March 6, 2023 Author Report Share Posted March 6, 2023 14 hours ago, zil2 said: Har. (Sorry, it was only worth one har, not two.) That's hars(h) Carborendum, zil2 and Vort 3 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
James Strollo Posted March 9, 2023 Report Share Posted March 9, 2023 Good question. Prompts another question: Does it matter? Carborendum 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
askandanswer Posted March 9, 2023 Author Report Share Posted March 9, 2023 7 hours ago, James Strollo said: Good question. Prompts another question: Does it matter? I think its important to have accurate understandings and interpretations of the scriptures. And if the reference is to Christ's wife, that would be interesting because it would be scriptural confirmation that Christ had a wife, Even the tiniest scrap of information about Diety can be helpful. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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