Why wasn’t Christ considered Joseph’s biological son according to scripture?




Hello, I was reading Romans 1:3 (Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh). The original Greek word for seed is “sperma”  (something sown, i.e. seed (including the male “sperm”)
It also mentions that Christ is his son “according to the flesh.” My question is why is Christ not considered Joseph’s biological son despite this verse?



Dear Rose,

I can understand your confusion regarding the etymology of the word ‘seed’ in this particular verse.

In the original Koine Greek, the fact that sperma is the root of both seed & sperm is nothing peculiar.  It also meant offspring.  It simply was the word with multiple definitions as are many words.

To read more: askgramps.org




Gramps is a hopeful, wise fave among young and old. Gramps provides a moral voice in a world oft awash in immorality. Gramps is unabashedly God-fearing. He invites you to sit with him on the virtual bench, to find answers to “It’s complicated” and “What if” and “I don’t get it” and “Why did God say” and “What does it mean when”–sorts of questions.