Hello, I was reading Romans 1:3 (Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh). The original Greek word for seed is “sperma” (something sown, i.e. seed (including the male “sperm”)
It also mentions that Christ is his son “according to the flesh.” My question is why is Christ not considered Joseph’s biological son despite this verse?
I can understand your confusion regarding the etymology of the word ‘seed’ in this particular verse.
In the original Koine Greek, the fact that sperma is the root of both seed & sperm is nothing peculiar. It also meant offspring. It simply was the word with multiple definitions as are many words.
To read more: askgramps.org