This scripture is a little confusing to me. 3 Nephi 19:18 "And behold, they began to pray; and they did pray unto Jesus, calling him their Lord and their God." Can someone shed a little light on this scripture? I know we have always been told to pray to the Father in the name of Jesus Christ... President Joseph F. Smith "We . . . accept without any question the doctrines we have been taught by the Prophet Joseph Smith and by the Son of God himself, that we pray to God, the Eternal Father, in the name of his only begotten Son, to whom also our father Adam and his posterity have prayed from the beginning. "CR1916Oct:6 Nephi, son of Lehi "But behold, I say unto you that ye must pray always, and not faint; that ye must not perform any thing unto the Lord save in the first place ye shall pray unto the Father in the name of Christ, that he will consecrate thy performance unto thee, that thy performance may be for the welfare of thy soul. "(Nephi writes, between 559-545 B.C.) 2Ne.32:9 So why did Jesus, 16 speak unto the multitude, and commanded them that they should kneel down again upon the earth, and also that his disciples should kneel down upon the earth. 17 And it came to pass that when they had all knelt down upon the earth, he commanded his disciples that they should pray. 18 And behold, they began to pray; and they did pray unto Jesus, calling him their Lord and their God. Thanks for any information
