Which is more reliable: Septuagint or the KJV Old Testament?

[apexviper13]

I've done some research about the differences in the two and they're interesting. Fairlds also talks about the differences as well as how the New Testament comes into play with it. I'll use the following verses for example:

(Septuagint) Deuteronomy 32:43 Rejoice, ye heavens, with him, and let all the angels of God worship him; rejoice ye Gentiles, with his people, And let all the sons of God strengthen themselves in him; For he will avenge the blood of his sons, and he will render vengeance and recompense justice to his enemies, and will reward them that hate him; and the Lord shall purge the land of his people.

(KJV) Deuteronomy 32:43 Rejoice O ye nations with his people, for he will avenge the blood of his servants, and will render vengeance to his adversaries, and will be merciful unto his land, and to his people.

The two phrases in bold are not in the KJV Old Testament. However, they do appear in the New Testament.

Hebrews 1:6 And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.

Romans 15:10 And again he saith, Rejoice, ye Gentiles, with his people.

So as far as the literal translation in wording goes would you rather use the KJV Old Testament or the Septuagint?

Edited April 17, 2011 by apexviper13

[Dravin]

I wouldn't mind using a newer more accurate translation, then what is represented by the KJV. One of these days I may have to pick up something for study purposes*. I probably wouldn't use it in Church though due to the cultural inertia the KJV has amongst LDS. Could you imagine being asked to read Deut. 32:43 and voicing the first one when the Gospel Doctrine teacher is expecting the second? :)

*Actually I'd love a side by side study bible which had an accurate Masoretic and Septuagint translation side by side with the KJV. Thing is I'm ignorant enough that I wouldn't know an accurate translation of the former two if it bit me.

[volgadon]

I've done some research about the differences in the two and they're interesting. Fairlds also talks about the differences as well as how the New Testament comes into play with it. I'll use the following verses for example:

(Septuagint) Deuteronomy 32:43 Rejoice, ye heavens, with him, and let all the angels of God worship him; rejoice ye Gentiles, with his people, And let all the sons of God strengthen themselves in him; For he will avenge the blood of his sons, and he will render vengeance and recompense justice to his enemies, and will reward them that hate him; and the Lord shall purge the land of his people.

(KJV) Deuteronomy 32:43 Rejoice O ye nations with his people, for he will avenge the blood of his servants, and will render vengeance to his adversaries, and will be merciful unto his land, and to his people.

The two phrases in bold are not in the KJV Old Testament. However, they do appear in the New Testament.

Hebrews 1:6 And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.

Romans 15:10 And again he saith, Rejoice, ye Gentiles, with his people.

So as far as the literal translation in wording goes would you rather use the KJV Old Testament or the Septuagint?

The problem here is not between the KJV and the LXX. The KJV translates the textual family known as the Masoretic, and the LXX is a Greek translation of a different textual tradition. One of the copies of Deuteronomy 32 found at Qumran reads sons of God, that is- gods. The LXX translated it in keeping with the contemporary view that the refernces to gods and sons of God were references to angels. The wording in the texts that became the basis of the later Masoretic one was changed deliberately.

The disadvantage to using the LXX is that you would be reading a translation of a theological translation. There are far better choices than just it or the KJV.

In this specific example the LXX is actually not a literal translation, though it is closer to the original.