Porissocri

There's a verse in the Bible in which Christ Himself seems to contradict this doctrine. It's Mark 22:30, in which Jesus says, "For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven." Am I interpreting this verse the wrong way?

Delighting in God's law and being subject to this same law means being under the law and out of grace? Those who are under grace can have these attitudes to God's law? What about Paul? Was he under grace or under the law? Paul, on Romans 6:14-15, gives us insight that is no longer under the Law, but under grace and, at the same time, on Romans 7:22,25 and Romans 8:7 demonstrates the behavior and attitudes mentioned in the first questions... Does Paul contradicts himself in his words or delighting in God's law and being subject to it don't take me from being under grace? Is being under the grace the same thing as not being subject to God's law? If it is, how to explain that this attitude is of those who live under the carnal mind as we read in Romans 8:7, that it's enmity against God? Sorry if I made any mistakes, English is not my first language.

Is there any biblical account in which someone was justified by Law regardless of faith? Did God create two ways to justify sinners in a way that, in the old covenant, they were justified by the Law and, in the new covenant, Christians were justified by Faith?