hocobo23

The above scripture indicates a couple of things: 1st, that every spirit of man was innocent in the beginning. In other words, each and every person, when first begotten in the spirit, was innocent before God. 2nd, It says that man became AGAIN, in their infant state(infant in mortality) innocent before God. 3rd, In order for someone to be innocent in the beginning, and then to become innocent AGAIN, it would imply that they would have to have lost their perfect innocence between these two births. This leaves me to reason that yes, there was indeed the possibility of sin or choosing contrary to the Lord's will in pre-mortal times. Now we know that Christ never has sinned, ever, not here in mortality, not in pre-mortal life. If he had sinned, the plan of salvation would have been frustrated and he would not have been able to perform the atonement. The follow excerpt from JOD illustrates Christ's perfection before this life. So, with that in mind, this leaves me to wonder... If Christ was born in the spirit of the Same father that you and i were born of, why was it that he was able to remain perfect and without blemish in pre-mortal times when others, Christ's literal brothers and sisters, were prone to sin and error? Think about this, and feedback is always appreciated. Although we were all perfect from "the begining" we know that we had a space of time to make choices and decisions in the pre earth life. Although we could not sin, we could use our agency to choose how to act and what to say, etc. Christ used his agency to PERFECTLY magnafy the will of the father and choose PERFECTLY how to use his agency. How did he do it? I dont know. But we all have the same ability we can choose to PERFECTLY follow christ, its laid out for us, we just usually dont! My humble opinion of course!

Does anyone have an official stance on this. I didnt live with my boyfriend, but Ive slept in the same bed as many of my male friends when we used to crash over each others houses, including boyfriends. If I stayed over, we slept in the same bed, tho nothing ever happened. My closest friends are male and i stayed over my mates one night and we all slept in the same bed together, me in the middle, two blokes either side of me. We were elbowing each other all night saying 'move over!' and 'get off!!' hardly sexual, like sharing a bed with your brother. Me and Rob shared a hotel room when we got stranded one night after we missed the last train home. They had one room with a double bed (i kid u not!) we thought it was stupid for rob to sleep on the floor so we cuddled up in bed. nothing ever happened. so is it bad? I know we should avoid the appearance of evil or whatever yadda yadda-but is actually sharing a bed an 'offense'? Ive never confessed any of this to a bishop. Rob knows I shared a bed with other guys as he was there half the time before we were going out. sp is it officially bad?? I am married and my wife was in college when we dated. I went up to visit her one weekend and we fell asleep on the couch watching a movie. Slept the whole night together. She was worried that we had done something wrong; her father refrenced us to a scripture in the new testament "...all things are pure to them who are pure." (cant remember the refrence sorry!) and explained that we had not intended to fornicate or to even sleep together (just sleep) so we had done nothing wrong nor made any wrong choice. Although not wise to place yourself in a bad situation, if your intent is pure, you have not sinned!!!!

O.k. I am new to this forum and stuff but I just had a thougth occur to me that I thought was interesting: So general conferance time is just around the corner yeah?! And we all know what that means right, protesters. I was wondering if you guys thought that there would be anything wrong with getting to temple square before the protesters with a couple hundred freinds of mine and taking all of the spots that the protesters take so there is nowhere as visable for them to protest... Thoughts please!