David Thompson

Thanks to all for the incisive responses in the quest to resolve this(to many of us) perplexing issue. As an observation, I am wondering what you consider to be the definition of a commandment? It is, surely, an instruction which, if we obey, we gain a blessing and, if we transgress, there is a penalty. We are not permitted to add our own caviat, to make it more acceptable e.g Thou shalt not steal (unless it is something you really like) or Thou shalt not commit adultary ( unless you find someone really attractive). So, with reference to the commandment that the sacrament is only for those who have been baptised:- 3rd Nephi :12 states "And I give unto you a commandment that ye shall do these things. And if ye shall always do these things blessed are ye, for ye are built upon my rock." (My emphisis) Here we have the commandment, the period for which it is to be in effect, and the attendant blessing. Verse 13 states, "But whoso among you shall do more or less than these are not built upon my rock, but are built upon a sandy foundation; and when the rain descends, and the floods come , and the winds blow, and beat upon them, they shall fall, and the gates of hell are ready open to receive them." This is the transgression of not keeping the commandment with its attendant consequence. Apart from D&C 20:68-71, there are, to my knowledge, no other scriptures or doctrines that deal with eligibility. We are not given leave change the Saviour's commandment to :- The sacrament is only for those who are baptised (unless you have children who haven't reached the age of accountability or you bring an investigator). Does anyone know how to bring this discussion to the attention of those who are in authority, so that we can have a difinitive answer? I await your comments and thank you for the trouble you are taking to help me.

HI, I have been trying to get some closure on this topic for quite a while without any success. All the comments so far have ignored the Saviour's explicit commandment in 3rd Nephi 18, that if we do "more or less" than He commands (the sacrament bread is to be given to those members of His church who believe and are baptised. The wine to those members of His church who repent and are baptised) then we are not built upon His rock but on a sandy foundation and the "gates of hell" are open to recieve us. I am sure you will agree that giving the sacrament to anyone outside of these specific parameters is "doing more" than He commands and that we bring ourselves under justifiable condemnation. Regarding the distribution of bread and wine to the multitude, although the bread is blessed, there is no mention of a blessing on the wine (just an observation in relation to this being the sacrament) Also, D&C 20:68-71 states that, after baptism, the member shall be taught, previous to partaking of the sacrament and that no one shall be baptised until they have reached the age of accountability and are capable of repentance. Handbook 2 instructs bishops to allow anyone in the meeting to take the sacrament (I can find no doctrinal evidence for this practise) Bruce R. McConkie's "Mormon Doctrine" states that " children are entitled and encouraged to take the sacrament to prefigure the time when they enter into covenants". Again, I can find no statement by any church authority which allows this. I am sure that, as a church, we don't do "practise " ordinances. Has anyone done a practise baptism? Practise endowment? Do we allow 10 or 11 year old boys to practise passing the sacrament? Are engaged couples allowed to practise being married? In all of the manuals regarding the teachings of the Presidents of the church, there is no mention of sacrament eligibility. We have had revelations regarding the universality of the priesthood, the lowering of age for missionaries, the changes in quorum organisation and the introdution of ministering, but I cannot find a statement fom anyone saying that the commandments relating to sacrament eligibility have been done away with. Pplease help enlighten me, if you can.

The fact that we have prophets is the reason for my observations. I cannot find any proclamation from any of the prophets, that annuls the Saviour's direct commandment in 3rd Nephi 18, stating that the sacrament must only be given to those who believe, repent and are baptised. I appreciate the fundamental change that would be required to reverse the current practise but it seems this has grown out of tradition rather than revelation. "By My own voice or the voice of My servants, it is the same". I just wish there was something from the servants that would resolve this issue, which has a number of us confused.

HI, To continue the discussion about sacrament eligibility. I stated that the sacrament is regarded as the most holy ordinance in the church but without any authoritative evidence. In "Teachings of Presidents of the Church- David O. McKay" page 34, third paragraph up, it states "No more sacred ordinance is administered in the Church of Christ than the administration of the sacrament." I think that should suffice to endorse my statement. I found this quote having looked through all the "President" manuals but not one of them has a word regarding eligibility. I think that is strange. Any thoughts? David Thompson

Thank you all for your comments in relation to my observations. I have not yet found a specific quote in relation to the sacrament's place in order of priority but am still searching. I think the explicit references for which you may be looking are found in 3rd Nephi 18. The Saviour declares that the one who will be given authority to administer the sacrament must only give the bread to those who "believe and are baptised", the wine, likewise, must only be given to those who "repent and are baptised". If we do this, He says, we are built upon His rock. If we do "more or less"than this (I am sure that giving the sacrament to those who are not baptised is doing more) we are not built upon His rock and "the gates of hell" are open to receive us. The Atonement is the central doctrine of the church and is celebrated by the sacrament. The commandments in relation to its administration are absolute so I think the Saviour's command regarding eligibility would also be paramount. All I am seeking is an explanation as to when and by whom the traditon of giving the sacrament to anyone who wants it was started. Regards, David

Hi, I have been vexed by this question for some time. The only scriptural references are in 3rd Nephi 18: 1-14 and D&C 20 : 68-71. I have noted that although 3rd Nephi has been quoted, no one has got to the verses that state, if those who are baptised partake of the sacrament, they are built upon His rock. If we do "more or less" than this, we are not built upon His rock and, ultimately, the jaws of hell are open to receive us! Giving the sacrament to those who are not baptised is absolutely forbidden. D&C 20: 68 states, the duty of members after they are received into the church by baptism:- The Elders or Priests are to expound the doctrines of the church PREVIOUS to their partaking of the sacrament. Verse 71 says no one may be received into the church (i.e. baptised) until they have reached the age of accountability and are capable of repentence. Giving the sacrament to those who are not baptised is absolutely forbidden. I initially wrote to President (then Elder Nelson) in May 2017, having had a discussion with my Stake President, who informed me of a speech given by Elder Nelson in 2010 where he quoted from Bruce R. McConkie's "Mormon Doctrine", stating that, though the sacrament is for members to renew their baptismal covenants, children should take it to prefigure the time when they actually are baptised. I am sure we do not practise ordinances before we actually perform them. My Stake President then had a letter from the secretary to the First Presidency, asking him to meet with me. I read the letter which mentioned Elder McConkie's opinion and also had a quote from "Handbook 2" stating that bishops should not prevent anyone (non-church member or child or whoever wanted to) from taking the sacrament. It has often been stated that the sacrament is the most holy ordinance in the church. We are commanded as to what we can eat and drink and must not deviate one word as to the blessing of the emblems of our Saviour's atonement, yet, without any scripural reference, we allow the sacrament to be given to those to whom it is absolutely forbidden. We have witnessed the priesthood becoming universal, the lowering age for missionaries, the re-organising of the priesthood and the introduction of Ministering, all by prophetic announcement. When and by whom was the revelation or proclamation or declaration made that annuled the Lord's specific commandment given in the scriptures? We are just following some tradition which has no validity, yet no one in the General Leadership of the church is prepared to give a doctrinal answer as to why we are allowing ourselves to come under the condemnation of having the gates of hell open to receive us! I would love to have an absolute answer so that I can stop thinking about this topic, which, it would seem, also troubles a lot of us.