Hello there, I am paging all grammar police/LDS doctrine individuals. I was recently watching a video and the man was explaining how the first verse of the KJV is grammatically incorrect. I haven't done much personal research yet so I am starting here. Basically his stance is that it is wrong because the sentence starts with a "Ba" instead of "A" or Aleph and that all Hebrew sentences start with the A/Aleph. Any thoughts on this or references I can be directed to would be much appreciated. Thanks!