annamaureen Posted July 10, 2009 Report Posted July 10, 2009 That's complete and utter nonsense. What you state here implies that a man is only capable of loving one woman at a time, which entirely nullifies the practice of polygamy. It would mean that when the Lord commanded polygamy, he was commanding men to take wives and not to love them, which is an absurd premise.But there can be different kinds of love... say a man is married to one woman, his "true love," and is commanded to take more wives. Does that mean he'll fall romantically in love with all of them? Or perhaps that he'll love them in a different way? It's still love, and caring, and affection, but surely it doesn't mean he'll be head over heels in love with all of them. Like, the difference between loving someone and being in love with them. Quote
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