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Posted (edited)

Ok, my daughter asked me a question I've never seen or heard about but here it is...

3 Nephi 13:12 has the line "lead us not into temptation" and there is a footnote that says "JST Matt. 6:13 And suffer us not to be led into temptation..."

Does the question leap out? The BoM verse coincides with Matt. Essentially it seems the BoM verse would already be "correct" or whatever. I can think of a couple of reasons but I just don't know.

Anyone got an answer that does not start with, "Maybe"? I've got that covered already lol!

Edited by Magen_Avot
Posted

The JST wasn't only for correcting translation errors. This is a quote from an Ensign article:

LDS scholar Robert J. Matthews from Brigham Young University concluded that there appear to be at least four different kinds of changes the Prophet Joseph Smith made to the Bible:

“(1) Portions may amount to restorations of content material once written by the biblical authors but since deleted from the Bible.

“(2) Portions may consist of a record of actual historical events that were not recorded, or were recorded but never included in the biblical collection.

“(3) Portions may consist of inspired commentary by the Prophet Joseph Smith, enlarged, elaborated, and even adapted to a latter-day situation. …

“(4) Some items may be a harmonization of doctrinal concepts that were revealed to the Prophet Joseph Smith independently of his translation of the Bible, but by means of which he was able to discover that a biblical passage was inaccurate.”

So I think this one fits in category 3: not a correction, but inspired commentary.

Posted

"JST Matt. 6:14 And suffer us not to be led into temptation..."

Do you mean Matt. 6:13?

Does the question leap out?

Can you please articulate your question? I think I have an idea, but it'd be helpful to know specifically what you are asking.

Posted (edited)

The JST wasn't only for correcting translation errors. This is a quote from an Ensign article:

So I think this one fits in category 3: not a correction, but inspired commentary.

It should be noted when considering Matt. 6:13 that footnote b says:

Syriac: do not let us enter into temptation.

It's specifying that the phrasing in question is idiomatic/archaic, with a meaning fairly close to the change made by Joseph Smith if you ask me. Which would put it in category 3 in my mind, commentary helping to clarify the archaic phrasing.

Edited by Dravin
Posted

Do you mean Matt. 6:13?

Yes, thank you. It's been corrected.

Can you please articulate your question? I think I have an idea, but it'd be helpful to know specifically what you are asking.

Sorry, I didn't want to ask it outright, but you no doubt understand the question as does LittleWyvern. ...and thanks, that was insightful.

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