apexviper13 Posted March 30, 2011 Report Share Posted March 30, 2011 We know the scriptures refer to Jesus Christ as "our Lord our God" so it's common to think this is referring to Christ. However, after stumbling upon Matthew 11:25 I'm not entirely sure. 25 At that time Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes. In Matthew 11:25, Jesus Christ actually acknowledges God the Father as Lord of heaven and earth. So when the scriptures say "Lord God" is it referring to Jesus Christ our Lord our God or God the Father, Lord of heaven and earth? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Just_A_Guy Posted March 30, 2011 Report Share Posted March 30, 2011 (edited) In the Old Testament, "Lord" usually stands for the Hebrew "Adonai", which in turn was often inserted in place of the sacred name "YHWH"--Jehovah. So, "Lord God" usually = "Jehovah, God". As Jesus is subject to the Father, the Father too qualifies for the title of "Lord of heaven and earth".The latter-day prophets, of course, generally equate Jehovah with Jesus--and pretty much universally so after 1916. Edited March 30, 2011 by Just_A_Guy Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
apexviper13 Posted March 30, 2011 Author Report Share Posted March 30, 2011 In the Old Testament, "Lord" usually stands for the Hebrew "Adonai", which in turn was often inserted in place of the sacred name "YHWH"--Jehovah. So, "Lord God" usually = "Jehovah, God".The latter-day prophets, of course, generally equate Jehovah with Jesus--and pretty much universally so after 1916.Ok. So it's the same as the phrase "our Lord our God". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Just_A_Guy Posted March 30, 2011 Report Share Posted March 30, 2011 (edited) Depends on context. It can refer to either God the Father or Jesus; but in the OT it usually refers to Jesus. Edited March 30, 2011 by Just_A_Guy Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Wingnut Posted March 30, 2011 Report Share Posted March 30, 2011 Since Jesus and the Father are one in purpose, does it matter much? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
captmoroniRM Posted March 30, 2011 Report Share Posted March 30, 2011 The scriptures are pretty clear that Christ and Heavenly Father are united in purpose. It is safe to say that if "the Lord God" says or does something, it refers to both of them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rameumptom Posted March 30, 2011 Report Share Posted March 30, 2011 Prior to James Talmage's Jesus the Christ establishing for modern minds that Elohim is Father and Jehovah is Christ, the belief was the terms were basically interchangeable titles. For example, in D&C 109, the dedicatory prayer for the Kirtland Temple, we find that Joseph Smith calls God the Father "Jehovah" twice. So, Lord God can be used for either the Father or Son. We should use caution in separating them out too much, because even Jesus said he only did the things he was commanded of by the Father. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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