New Word from Paul

[Guest Mores]

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But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.

 -- Rom 7:8

I realized I'd never noticed this word before.  I think I skimmed it as "conscience" in past readings.

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Lust; unlawful or irregular desire of sexual pleasure. In a more general sense, the coveting of carnal things, or an irregular appetite for worldly good; inclination for unlawful enjoyments.

--Webster

TBH, I have no idea what Paul's saying about the rest of it.

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taking occasion by the commandment

Meaning "Having taken the opportunity by the commandment".  So, huh?  This sounds like he's saying that he was commanded to sin.  Maybe the "cookie jar" effect?  What the heck?  Anyone?  Help?

Edited August 14, 2019 by Mores

[person0]

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7) What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
😎 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.

The Cookie Jar Effect is exactly right.  Sin is being personified, and in that personification it is being suggested that sin is taking advantage of the knowledge of the commandment to inspire lust.  If there were no law (commandment), sin would have no hold (no cookies in the jar, no temptation).

Our understanding of this is added upon by Restored knowledge:

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For behold, and also his blood atoneth for the sins of those who have fallen by the transgression of Adam, who have died not knowing the will of God concerning them, or who have ignorantly sinned. (Mosiah 3:11)

For the atonement satisfieth the demands of his justice upon all those who have not the law given to them. . . (2 Ne 9:26)

In Paul's writing he makes it clear that without the law, he would not have known lust.  When he asks, "Is the law sin?", he is posing the question to the extent of asking, "Is the law the problem?  Is it the law's fault that we sin?"  To which the answer is obviously no.  That said, it does not change the 'Cookie Jar Effect' that can sometimes happen with the law, or any rule, really.

[Just_A_Guy]

This isn’t directly on point, perhaps; but I’m kind of a fan of Ben Spackman; and he has  a post on the interplay between grace and works and law in Paul’s letters that I’ve found immensely helpful:

https://www.patheos.com/blogs/benjaminthescribe/2019/07/covenant-and-law-grace-works-and-faith/

[Guest Mores]

5 hours ago, Just_A_Guy said:

This isn’t directly on point, perhaps; but I’m kind of a fan of Ben Spackman; and he has  a post on the interplay between grace and works and law in Paul’s letters that I’ve found immensely helpful:

https://www.patheos.com/blogs/benjaminthescribe/2019/07/covenant-and-law-grace-works-and-faith/

That makes so much sense.  Faith = faithfulness = allegiance.

I've always believed that.  I just never thought of those words before.

Thanks.