rstrats

Completely off topic except for the word "prayer" but I have to wonder since there are probably hundreds of prayers being said around the world at any given moment how they are all kept separate and understood. And more hundreds keep coming moment after moment after moment etc.

re: "Besides the example in Ether we also have 1 Samuel 30:12-13" As I pointed out previously, Esther is not an example, nor is the Samuel account. Neither one precludes at least a portion of 3 daytimes and/or at least a portion of 3 night times. re: "Having said that, I also reiterate what other posters have emphasized that this is not a particularly LDS position..." Since I hadn't realized that the LDS position is that the Messiah was referring to calendar days when He said 3 days, but meant 3 night times when He said 3 nights, I shall move on and not take up any more bandwidth.

What the heck have I done to you for you to say something like that?

I don't see how it's an example. As I said, it doesn't preclude at least of portion of 3 daytimes and/or at least a portion of 3 night times.

That's fine, but they're issues for a different topic. This topic is concerned with one thing and one thing only; was it common to forecast or say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have occurred?

Does the Book of Mormon say that even though the Messiah said that He would be in the "heart of the earth" for 3 nights that He actually meant 2 nights?

re: "I don't think you're understanding anything I'm saying. " I understand it perfectly. It's just that it is irrelevant to this particular topic. None of your comments include examples which show that it was common to forecast that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could occur. re: "How do YOU resolve John 2:19 with Matthew 12:40?" In Matthew 12:40 the Messiah said that He would be 3 nights in the heart of the earth. In John 2:19 the Messiah said "Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up." So if the Messiah meant what He said in Matthew 12:40, then He had to mean in John 2:19 that He would rise three days after His destruction. That is the only way to get 3 nights.

re: "John 2:19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up." And in light of Mark 8:31 He has to be saying that He will raise Himself up three days after His destruction. re: "3 days for the Death and Resurrection with Day 1 being Crucifixion, Day 2 being Sabbath, Day 3 being Resurrection..." How do you account for the lack of a third night that the Messiah said He would be in the heart of the earth? Also, Luke 24:21 indicates that the crucifixion couldn't have occurred any later than the 5th day of the week.

I don't. I'm simply asking for examples.

re: "Jesus clearly stated in his own words that on the 3rd day he will rise again. Not on the 4th day." Actually in Mark 8:31 the Messiah said that He would rise after 3 days. So the verses that say on the 3rd day have to be referring to the 3rd day after His death. This is in line with Matthew 12:40 in order to get at least a portion of 3 daytimes and at least a portion of 3 night times. re: " Jonah was in the fish for 3 days..." Three daytimes, yes. But it doesn't say anything about calendar days. Nothing in the account precludes the involvement of 4 calendar days. Perhaps someone new looking in may know of examples.

That's an issue for a different topic.

Actually, she said "...three days, night or day" which is not necessarily the same thing. But even if it is, as I said previously, nothing in the account precludes at least a portion on 3 daytimes and at least a portion of 3 night times.

I'm not.

I'm afraid I don't see where the account precludes as least a portion of 3 daytimes and at least a portion of 3 night times. What do you have in mind?

1. The Messiah said that three nights would be involved with His time in the "heart of the earth". 2. There are some who believe that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week. 3. Of those, there are some who believe that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb. 4. However, those two beliefs allow for only 2 nights to be involved. 5. To account for the discrepancy, some of the above say that the Messiah was using common figure of speech/colloquial language of the time, i.e., that it is was common to forecast or say that a day or a night would be involved with an event when no part of the day or no part of the night could occur. 6. In order for someone to legitimately say that it was common, they would have to know of more that 1 example to make that assertion. I wonder if anyone looking in knows of any examples to support an assertion of commonality?