Madriglace Posted January 29, 2009 Report Posted January 29, 2009 As I understand the gift of tongues it is manifest only to the edification of someone present at the time. And as I have seen it in my life and those of my family the gift of interpetation of tongues generally is a companion. My folks completed 5 missions ... on the first my mother ... in her 60's larned to speak Spanish ... she knew it wasn't good but she relied on the Lord and when ever she spoke in her broken Spanish it was very clear to all who were present. One sister had had the lessons numerous times but finally whn she was taught by my parents she said it had never been more clear. That wasn't my parents that was the Holy Ghost working through them. It is not an idle or firvolous thing it s is grant for a reason with a goal as are all the gifts of the spirit. I am not sure I can see the outcome of speaking in an unknown toungue when we pray ... prayer is for our benefit not the Lords ... IMHO He would want us to know what we were saying so that we could grow and gain from it. Howver ... whatever draws one closer to God whether I agree or not has value. Quote
Moksha Posted January 30, 2009 Report Posted January 30, 2009 When I "pray in unknown tongues," the Bible says my spirit is built up. I may not understand my own prayers, but God does...and he is communing with my spirit about things I may not even be conscious of yet. When I have witnessed this at a few Pentecostal Churches, it truly seemed like those who were speaking in tongues were having a spiritual experience. Within the confines of those Churches it was very appropriate. If nothing else, it was certainly making a joyous noise unto the Lord.:) Quote
AnthonyB Posted January 30, 2009 Report Posted January 30, 2009 (edited) PC, Been meaning to ask this for sometime and I hope I won't offend by asking. What is you take on "me glossalia" in 1 Cor 12:30? Isn't Paul saying "Not all speaking in tongues, do they?" (I'm not antagonistic to spiritual gifts, my belief in the current existence of "charismata" rests on the fact that I personally have found no NT reference that they have ceased and if we are going to be a NT like church then they have to have their place. It also seems silly IMHO for Paul to spend so much time in the NT talking about their correct use, if they weren't supposed to exist after the apostolic age.) Edited January 30, 2009 by AnthonyB Quote
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