Contradictions within the Bible?

[Hemidakota]

I don't think your concept necessarily follows. If Jerusalem had rejected the prophets and apostles, what makes the KJV any better than any other version? The authority is in the individual, not the book.

As it is, there are few differences between the Vulgate and the KJV (not KJB ). And we cannot be assured which used the best versions of the ancient documents, or if they equally used better or poorer versions alike. Why? Because they used traditions and versions that descended in different places. Why would one be necessarily better than the other, simply because it seems to be tied to Jerusalem?

The history of the Bible shows that there were various authors of the current books we now have (J, E, D, P, R). The Dead Sea Scrolls show that there are many books that were considered canon, which we do not have in the Bible today. And it was Jerome, btw, who established the current books we have in the Bible. So, if Jerome was of lesser/no authority, why then did virtually everyone accept his list, including the KJV scholars?

The Latin Vulgate was created by Jerome and others in the early 5th century, using the Septuagint and other early texts. The KJV was written in the 17th century. Is it possible Jerome may have had better access to more ancient texts than did King James' scholars?

Did you know that in 385, Jerome was forced out of Rome and settled in Bethlehem, where he compiled his version of Psalms? Suddenly, we have him in the "authoritative" area translating the OT from Hebrew to Latin. Meanwhile, the KJV was written exclusively in Britain, entirely outside of the realm of the Israelites. Vulgate - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Of course, Joseph Smith's translation of the Bible goes even further abroad, being done overseas, and even without a single Hebrew manuscript available to translate!

So, I wonder how your views on authoritative regions can really matter?

Wasn't it Joseph declared the Germanic Bible to be the most correct translation?

[JohnnyRudick]

Wasn't it Joseph declared the Germanic Bible to be the most correct translation?

Yes. This was the translation made by Martin Luther.

Martin Luther used the compiled writings of Erasmus and Beza to give the Bible to the German speaking people.

Before this they had no Bible.

The church in power did not have a bible for the people as even the Dewey Version using the corrupt texts of Origen was not even released.

The KJ Translators mainly used the TR used by Luther to bring about the KJB.

Yes, it is the KJB.

Up to the time of the American Bible, brought about by Wescott and Hort, the two of the Ghostly Gould, most people regarded the KJB "The Bible", even though the Great Bible and others also using the TR for it's existence, was in circulation.

By the way. The KJB, the Great Bible, Tyndale s New Testament and all other English Bibles and the German Bible, all using the TR, agreed together against the Dewey bible which most people shunned.

Bro. Rudick