Hebrew Old Testament or Greek Septuagint?

[apexviper13]

Although the manuscripts of the Hebrew are where the Old Testament of the Bible comes from, which do you think is more accurate between the Old Testament and the Septuagint? Simply because Jesus and the apostles quoted the Septuagint that's the one I think is more accurate.

[volgadon]

Although the manuscripts of the Hebrew are where the Old Testament of the Bible comes from, which do you think is more accurate between the Old Testament and the Septuagint? Simply because Jesus and the apostles quoted the Septuagint that's the one I think is more accurate.

For starters, Jesus didn't quote from the Septuagint as far as we can tell. There is a very simple reason why the Septuagint was used in the New Testament. The New Testament was written in Greek and the Septuaginst was the most widely used of all Greek translations of the Hebrew Bible.

[Snow]

Simply because Jesus and the apostles quoted the Septuagint that's the one I think is more accurate.

Oh? When did they learn Greek?

[volgadon]

Oh? When did they learn Greek?

It is not at all far-fetched that they might have at least spoken some.

[Vort]

Although the manuscripts of the Hebrew are where the Old Testament of the Bible comes from, which do you think is more accurate between the Old Testament and the Septuagint? Simply because Jesus and the apostles quoted the Septuagint that's the one I think is more accurate.

I would guess that Jesus quoted from the Hebrew source from which the Septuagint was translated, rather than from the Greek Septuagint itself. I know there are some who firmly maintain that Jesus spoke primarily Koine Greek, but that seems preposterous to me. (Not that my opinion on the matter is actually worth anything.)

[Justice]

I've always heard that Jesus spoke a Semitic language called Aramaic?

[apexviper13]

It is not at all far-fetched that they might have at least spoken some.

Especially the Savior.

[apexviper13]

I've always heard that Jesus spoke a Semitic language called Aramaic?

Yea, that's the language I've heard he spoke too but I mean he is the Son of God so there's no reason he can't speak any language.

[Dravin]

Yea, that's the language I've heard he spoke too but I mean he is the Son of God so there's no reason he can't speak any language.

Even if he could speak a language, quoting scriptures in binary (or Greek) wouldn't do any good if the people he was quoting it too didn't understand the language well enough. So you'd probably need a case by case look into if it even makes sense for him to be speaking in Greek given his audience.

Oh? When did they learn Greek?

I expect you'll get an omniscience plus gift of tongues (for the Apostles) answer.

[Snow]

Yea, that's the language I've heard he spoke too but I mean he is the Son of God so there's no reason he can't speak any language.

I trust that you have some evidence that Jesus was multi-lingual???

[volgadon]

I trust that you have some evidence that Jesus was multi-lingual???

Hebrew and Aramaic. Whether or not he spoke Greek is different matter.

[SteveVH]

For starters, Jesus didn't quote from the Septuagint as far as we can tell. There is a very simple reason why the Septuagint was used in the New Testament. The New Testament was written in Greek and the Septuaginst was the most widely used of all Greek translations of the Hebrew Bible.

Ptolemy II Philadelphus, the King of Egypt from 287 to 247 B.C. had established an extensive library at Alexandria and wanted to include the sacred books of the Jews. He requested seventy two Jewish scholars (hence the term “Septuagint”, meaning seventy), six scholars each, from each of the twelve tribes, to translate their sacred writings from Hebrew into Greek so that he and the rest of the Greek-speaking world could understand them, as Greek had become the universal language by that time.

So they were originally written in Hebrew and later translated into Greek. There is no doubt that the Scriptures used by Jesus and the Apostles were the Septuagint because the Palestinian version, adopted by the Protestants at the time of the "Reformation" did not exist in Jesus' time, but were compiled at a later date. The Dead Sea Scrolls verify that that the deuterocanonical books ("apocrypha") were, indeed, written originally in Hebrew. The result is that the Protestant Bible, including the KJV,which the LDS adapted as their preferred translation, is missing seven complete books and portions of others that Christ himself regarded as Scripture.

[volgadon]

Ptolemy II Philadelphus, the King of Egypt from 287 to 247 B.C. had established an extensive library at Alexandria and wanted to include the sacred books of the Jews. He requested seventy two Jewish scholars (hence the term “Septuagint”, meaning seventy), six scholars each, from each of the twelve tribes, to translate their sacred writings from Hebrew into Greek so that he and the rest of the Greek-speaking world could understand them, as Greek had become the universal language by that time.

You mean that the author of the unhistorical "Epistle of Aristeas" makes the claim. It is far more likely that the Jewish community in Egypt wanted a Bible in their own language, hence the translation.

So they were originally written in Hebrew and later translated into Greek. There is no doubt that the Scriptures used by Jesus and the Apostles were the Septuagint because the Palestinian version, adopted by the Protestants at the time of the "Reformation" did not exist in Jesus' time, but were compiled at a later date.

You significantly overstate your case. There were several recenscions found in Qumran. Some match the Septuagint more, others the Masoretic text (sans the vocalisations and cantillation), and still others differ from both.

[SteveVH]

You mean that the author of the unhistorical "Epistle of Aristeas" makes the claim. It is far more likely that the Jewish community in Egypt wanted a Bible in their own language, hence the translation.

You significantly overstate your case. There were several recenscions found in Qumran. Some match the Septuagint more, others the Masoretic text (sans the vocalisations and cantillation), and still others differ from both.

You make some valid points, however, the fact that any of the Septuagint was found written in Hebrew dispells the claims that it was not written in Hebrew. Many of those writtings would overlap with the Masoretic text. I'm probably getting on dangerous ground here as I certainly don't claim to be any kind of expert in the details of what was found at Qumran.