Larry Cotrell

Yes, I did mean Matthew and wrote Mark by mistake. So then my question to you is: Who would she be married to in heaven? Only the first? All seven?

" 23 The same day came to him the Sadducees, which say that there is no resurrection, and asked him, 24 Saying, Master, Moses said, If a man die, having no children, his brother shall marry his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother. 25 Now there were with us seven brethren: and the first, when he had married a wife, deceased, and, having no issue, left his wife unto his brother: 26 Likewise the second also, and the third, unto the seventh. 27 And last of all the woman died also. 28 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her. 29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God. 30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven."-Mark 22:23-30 KJV This sounds like Jesus is saying there won't be marriage after this life. Please correct me if I'm wrong

If you reject the Masoretic text, consider the Septuagint. The Septuagint was translated from original Hebrew texts. This translation was accepted by the Jewish leaders of the time as an accurate translation. We still have access to this document and can use it to check modern translations. Also, I am curious what translation of the Bible you read since you imply that the King James is unreliable (the King James translation is taken from the Masoretic text).

I understand what your saying. However, the point I was trying to make with the Bereans is that we should measure teachings against the scriptures and that "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness." (2 Timothy 3:16) In response to this, I would say that we have copies of every old testament book (with the exception of Esther) that were found in the caves at Qumran. These documents predate the pharisees of Jesus' time by hundreds of years. We can turn to these sources today to see that (the vast majority of) modern Bible translations match the original text.

My apologies for misunderstanding

My profile picture has no significance. Some people say I am "just baiting [you] in anticipation of a theological "gotcha" (Just_a_guy) but I can assure you that I am just a guy who wants to follow the example set by the Bereans in Acts 17 ( These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so. KJV) I think searching the scriptures to find truth is something we could all agree on

Okay, NeedleinA, I will admit that is not a picture of me. But in all fairness, I don't think you are a bale of hay, which is your profile picture. In any case, we are getting off topic. I appreciate everyone's comments

Stephen is believed to have been martyred within five years of Jesus' death and resurrection. His cry for help seems to reflect the fact that praying to Jesus was standard in the early church. His final cry before death would not have been to someone who he's never prayed to before. Also, I would add that praying to someone that you shouldn't be praying to is not a "minor theological/procedural slip-up," it's a big deal. Finally, to address the Lords prayer, just because Jesus prayed to his father doesn't mean we have to every time. We can (and should) pray to Jesus because He is the mediator between God and man (1 Timothy 2:5) and prays to the father on our behalf (John 17:20-23).

Thank you for your replies, However, one thing still is not clear to me: Why would God command Joseph Smith to practice polygamy but call it an abomination (Jacob 2:24) for someone else to practice?

Thank you for your comments, Another example of this is in Acts 7:59, " And they stoned Stephen, calling upon God, and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit." In this passage as well, Stephen prays to Jesus. Was this the wrong thing to do?

There are many verses in the Book of Mormon that blatantly forbid polygamy-Jacob 1:15, Jacob 2:24, Jacob 2:27, Mosiah 11:2, Ether 10:5-just to name a few. So why did many of the early church leaders such as Joseph Smith and Brigham Young practice polygamy?

There are many verses in the Book of Mormon that blatantly forbid polygamy-Jacob 1:15, Jacob 2:24, Jacob 2:27, Mosiah 11:2, Ether 10:5-just to name a few. So why did many of the early church leaders such as Joseph Smith and Brigham Young practice polygamy.

So, should we pray to Jesus as well?

Why do the disciples pray directly to Jesus in 3 Nephi 19:18? (18 And behold, they began to pray; and they did pray unto Jesus, calling him their Lord and their God.)