Law of Sacrifice fulfilled?

[Elayne]

I have a question about the Law of Sacrifice. I have searched the scriptures and writings of the prophets without finding an answer, and would really like your opinions.

Jesus Christ fulfilled the Mosaic law of blood sacrifice when he allowed himself to become the atoning sacrifice for all mankind. In virtually all sacrifices, the blood of the sacrifice was sprinkled on or around the altar of the temple. All secular accounts say that as Jesus hung on the cross, Joseph of Arimathea, his heir to the office of High Priest, took the cup Christ used at the Last Supper and used this same cup to collect some of Christ’s blood as he hung on the cross. History has not recorded whether Joseph of Arimathea then went to the temple and sprinkled some of the Saviour’s blood upon the altar. As heir to the office of High Priest, he was the only person who would have been qualified to perform this ordinance. That responsibility would have been in keeping with the original Mosaic law, and would have fulfilled the law of sacrifice in every detail. What is recorded is that at the moment of Christ’s death, “And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;” (Matthew 27:51). Joseph is then mentioned as having arrived at Golgotha after Jesus’ death (Matthew 27:57, Mark 15:42-43, Luke 23:50-52, John 19:38). Joseph of Arimathea was very close to Jesus and Mary and would not have stayed away from the crucifixion. Therefore it is entirely possible that his recorded arrival was a return from this errand rather than his first arrival.

One of the best scriptures regarding this is: Matthew 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. 18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. 3 Nephi 12:17-18 says almost the same thing. 1 Peter 1:2 Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ; …. This is the only verse I have found which mentions sprinkling the blood of Christ, and it is used in the middle of a “hello” and is not clear to me.

I must admit that when I first came across the reference to Joseph of Arimathea collecting some of Christ’s blood, I didn’t believe it. But after I came across it the third time, I started to give it some serious thought. I finally decided it might have been like the golden cup of manna, kept as a memorial of a sacred event. It wasn’t until later, as I was studying Jesus and the law of sacrifice that I began to think this might be the fulfillment of that law. What do you think?

[Justice]

Certainly possible. This is the first time I've heard of this, so I can't really comment.

My first question would pertain to the symbolism of sprinkling the lambs blood on the altar. It was in the similitude of Christ and His bleeding from every pour.

What would be the purpose of sprinkling Christ's blood on the altar?

[Moksha]

One of the best scriptures regarding this is: Matthew 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill. What do you think?

I think he changed the law quite a bit. He was open and inclusive. He introduced the concept of forgiveness and mercy in place of an eye for an eye and other harsh justice remedies such as stoning to death. He gave the greatest commandment of all, which was to love. He turned the emphasis from the letter of the law to the spirit of the law.

Generally I think Christ's atoning sacrifice was the penultimate and forever sufficed as fulfilling the law.

[rameumptom]

Elayne,

The story of Joseph or Arimathea collecting the blood of Christ is part of the myth of the chalice of Christ (or Holy Grail). The story is steeped in the idea that Joseph later took it with him to England, to preach the gospel. This also later became the quest for the mythological Arthur and his knights - to find the grail and restore the power of Christ and the divine right of kings to the king of England.

It is all based upon legend, not history. As it is, Joseph of Arimathea was a member of the Sanhedrin, but was NOT in the line to be high priest of the temple. Only the High Priest was allowed into the Holy of Holies, and at the time it was Caiaphas. The high priest entered into the Holy of Holies only one time per year, on the Day of Atonement (Yom Kippur), where the sacrifice was made for all people. The likelihood of Joseph of Arimathea being able to enter into the Holy of Holies and sprinkle the blood are very low, as the entrance to the Holy of Holies was guarded by priests. (see article in Wikipedia on Joseph of Arimathea)

Clearly, these stories are from medieval times or later.

[Hemidakota]

Seeing the answer is provided, Elayne, welcome to the forum.