YUP--the "one God"

[dberrie2000]

1 Cor8:6--"But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him."

Why did Paul separate out Jesus Christ from the "one God" and place Christ is a different designation apart from the Father--as the "one Lord"?

Why is there not a single reference in the NT that connects the "one God" to anyone but God the Father?

IE--

Ephesians4:4-6--"There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling;

5One Lord, one faith, one baptism,

6One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all."

Trinitarianism lists their Godhood as such:

God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Ghost. Which is the same as the LDS do.

But if they were indeed the same God--would it not be listed as follows? :

God---the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost.

[Still_Small_Voice]

I never saw that insight in I Corinthians 8:6 before. Thanks for the knowledge.

[Traveler]

1 Cor8:6--"But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him."

Why did Paul separate out Jesus Christ from the "one God" and place Christ is a different designation apart from the Father--as the "one Lord"?

Why is there not a single reference in the NT that connects the "one God" to anyone but God the Father?

IE--

Ephesians4:4-6--"There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling;

5One Lord, one faith, one baptism,

6One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all."

Trinitarianism lists their Godhood as such:

God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Ghost. Which is the same as the LDS do.

But if they were indeed the same God--would it not be listed as follows? :

God---the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost.

Generally there is little understanding concerning kingdoms and Suzerain in our modern era especially the Servant Vassal relationships. The most profound lack of understanding in Trinitarian Christianity is that the Servant Vassal is legally the Suzerain and speaks in the first person as the Suzerain but is a different person. This oneness was very common anciently – for example note the reference at the trial of Jesus when Pilate asked the Jews if Jesus was their king. In response to the question the Jews answered that they had no king but Cesar. Really? Who then was King Herod? Since King Herod was the appointed regional king over the Jewish province are we to assume that Herod and Cesar are “one” king?

The answer is yes; although they were both separate and distinct persons and held the titles of King in the same kingdom they were consider ONE king. But note that Herod was subordinate to Cesar in the same manner that Jesus (G-d the Son) is subordinate to G-d the Father.

The Traveler