Why was Moses Transfigured?

[the_last_gunslinger]

The first chapter of the Book of Moses details how Moses was transfigured by the Lord so that he could stand in His presence , for no mortal man may behold the glory of God without withering away and dying. But we also know that the God of the Old Testament is the Pre-Existent Jesus Christ, acting under the Principle of Divine Investiture. If this is the case, I guess I'm having a little trouble understanding the need for Moses to be transfigured if he wasn't actually in the presence of God the Father, but was instead conversing with Jesus Christ. What are we to understand of the glory of God in this context? Did Christ possess such glory prior to his mortal sojourn, or was the glory of God still manifest, yet channeled through Christ? I guess more than anything else, my question speaks to the relationship between the Father and Son prior to the Meridian of Time, and as to Christ's status as (a) God prior to his life, death and resurrection.

Sorry if my question seems a bit muttled. I'm still not sure if I know exactly what I'm asking. Hopefully its clear enough to be properly disseminated.

[volgadon]

The first chapter of the Book of Moses details how Moses was transfigured by the Lord so that he could stand in His presence , for no mortal man may behold the glory of God without withering away and dying. But we also know that the God of the Old Testament is the Pre-Existent Jesus Christ, acting under the Principle of Divine Investiture. If this is the case, I guess I'm having a little trouble understanding the need for Moses to be transfigured if he wasn't actually in the presence of God the Father, but was instead conversing with Jesus Christ. What are we to understand of the glory of God in this context? Did Christ possess such glory prior to his mortal sojourn, or was the glory of God still manifest, yet channeled through Christ? I guess more than anything else, my question speaks to the relationship between the Father and Son prior to the Meridian of Time, and as to Christ's status as (a) God prior to his life, death and resurrection.

Sorry if my question seems a bit muttled. I'm still not sure if I know exactly what I'm asking. Hopefully its clear enough to be properly disseminated.

I don't find divine investiture a convincing explanation here.

[Landy77]

In Exodus 19 verse 9 it reads, "The LORD said to Moses: I am coming to you now in a dense cloud,e so that when the people hear me speaking with you, they will also remain faithful to you. ".

This explaints God is ascending onto Mount Siani to meet Moses, but wants to stay hidden from the people. When I read this it suggests God wants to keep the authority of Moses as leader intact but tell Moses what to do also. That is just my interpretation of the verse.

In Exodus 19 verse 20 it reads "When the LORD came down upon Mount Sinai, to the top of the mountain, the LORD summoned Moses to the top of the mountain, and Moses went up".

So in several verses the bible indicates God resided on Mount Siani to meet Moses.

In chapter 33 starting at verse 18 Moses begs God to allow him to see his face. God allows Moses to see his glory when he passes by.

I have read about this topic and if you look at it from a science perspective it would suggest Gods presence produces radiation or something semilar that will harm us physically. By reading this God is willing but explains it is not possible.

So with Moses being "transfixed" suggest he was changed or protected in some way.

I hope this answers your question.

[the_last_gunslinger]

I don't find divine investiture a convincing explanation here.

I don't believe so either, but an understanding of the concept is still important so we fully understand what the text says. The Book of Moses states that Moses spoke with God, and understanding divine investiture merely affords us the knowledge that it was indeed Christ given authority to speak as if He were the Father. It doesn't do much, however, in helping me understand the notion of God's glory being too great for Man to bear when it is in fact Christ that conversed with Moses.

[Vort]

Moses was without doubt in the presence of a being of celestial glory. Either Jehovah could indeed assume that glory while in a premortal state, or the Father was present. I see no other option.

[Seminarysnoozer]

I guess more than anything else, my question speaks to the relationship between the Father and Son prior to the Meridian of Time, and as to Christ's status as (a) God prior to his life, death and resurrection.

I think your question could be pondered by the noting that the relationship between Father and Son is affected by His "life, death and resurrection". In other words, what is it in Christ that changed the moment He took on mortality, by his life here? ... He took on a mortal body.

The mortal body, and therefore a "fallen state" is the same separation that Moses had between him and the pre-mortal Jesus.

Understanding what is being transfigured, of course, is the answer to your question of why was Moses transfigured. It seems that likely what is transfigured is the mortal body. So the answer to your question is what is it about the mortal body that could not stand the presence of a place where there is no corruption.

If one believes that Christ did not take on corruption by being born then your question would be hard to answer. We know, though, that Christ had to grow in stature among men and God before beginning His ministry. Otherwise, He would have began it on day one, as a baby and the time teaching in the synagog at the age of 12 would have been a bit late.

We understand, even though the understanding is limited, that the type of body one receives upon resurrection is related to glory, one of the Celestial, one of the Terrestrial and various types of the Telestial. A spirit body has to fall to be in the presence of corruption. Even corrupted spirits such as Lucifer and his followers are cast out of the presence of God. So, the issue is reversed in that the reason Moses had to be transfigured to be in Christ' presence is because it was not time for Christ to take on a fallen nature yet, to start the process of overcoming it. It isn't until all is over that He will fully overcome it, when all the Earth will change.

Edited December 8, 2012 by Seminarysnoozer

[james12]

I don't believe so either, but an understanding of the concept is still important so we fully understand what the text says. The Book of Moses states that Moses spoke with God, and understanding divine investiture merely affords us the knowledge that it was indeed Christ given authority to speak as if He were the Father. It doesn't do much, however, in helping me understand the notion of God's glory being too great for Man to bear when it is in fact Christ that conversed with Moses.

I think it important not to diminish the pre-mortal Christ and assume he was like unto us in power and glory. He was not. While he didn't receive a fullness of glory until after his atonement he was still the Firstborn of the Father in the Spirit, the creator of Heavens and Earth. He was and is the light of the world and light and life of men.

As if man in his sinful state could even come close to approaching the pre-mortal Christ without being changed. Note these words, "For no man has seen God at any time in the flesh, except quickened by the Spirit of God. Neither can any natural man abide the presence of God, neither after the carnal mind. Ye are not able to abide the presence of God now neither the ministering of angels; wherefore, continue in patience until ye are perfected." (D&C 67:11-13). Here the Lord says that the natural man cannot even abide the presence of angels, how then could we hope to abide the presence of Christ!

Because we have great potential we must not misunderstand our current state. We are as nothing! Less then the dust of the Earth. As Moses said after his experience, "Now, for this cause I know that man is nothing, which thing I never had supposed" (Moses 1:10).

[volgadon]

I don't believe so either, but an understanding of the concept is still important so we fully understand what the text says. The Book of Moses states that Moses spoke with God, and understanding divine investiture merely affords us the knowledge that it was indeed Christ given authority to speak as if He were the Father. It doesn't do much, however, in helping me understand the notion of God's glory being too great for Man to bear when it is in fact Christ that conversed with Moses.

If it is God the Father speaking, though, one needn't speculate further. That is my point.

Edited December 8, 2012 by volgadon

[tubaloth]

If this is the case, I guess I'm having a little trouble understanding the need for Moses to be transfigured if he wasn't actually in the presence of God the Father, but was instead conversing with Jesus Christ.

My two cents is... Jesus Christ even though was a spirit at this time, by his calling as part of the Godhead was different then any other spirit. This wasn't just an angel that came down, it was a member of the Godhead, Jesus Christ, acting for Heavenly Father. I think we can agree this is a different situation.

The other thought is that Moses was a mortal--Fallen man. He had the effects of the Fall on him, just like we all do. For a Fallen Man to be in the presence of God (And the God head is one) some change has to take place for this to happen. Moses like us all was cut off because of the fall. Only through the spirit could somebody withstand this experience.

[mordorbund]

Just to throw some more scripture at what's been mentioned so far, review the Intercessory Prayer:

And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.

The premortal Jesus was a being of great glory. Let's not diminish that.