NightSG Posted February 12, 2015 Report Posted February 12, 2015 I don't think my explanation is any more convincing than yours. Somehow, this is tied up in the nature of the covenant itself, both with whom it is made and what the specific parts of the covenant are. Right; it seems to me the more proper approach would be, rather than to dissolve the sealing entirely, to simply modify the excommunicated member's status to reflect that the sealing will not be restored for that person if they return. I have a sneaking suspicion this may be one of those details that's waiting for us to get better at seeing the overall picture before it's fully revealed. That theory, however, also leads me to believe that HF is somewhat more optimistic about the speed of our progress than I am, if He ever expects any of us to be ready at this rate. mordorbund 1 Quote
classylady Posted February 13, 2015 Report Posted February 13, 2015 (edited) Also, something to think about: Being born in the covenant depends on the mother being sealed to a husband. If the child is born after the sealing of mother and father, it is born in the covenant. If that child is born of that mother in another later marriage, it is born in the covenant as long as the mother has not been excommunicated or requested her name to be removed from church records or had her sealing cancelled. Even, if she is not sealed to her second husband, that child would be born in the covenant. If the mother is excommunicated or has her name removed or had her sealing cancelled, any children born after that time are not born in the covenant. The same does not hold true for a man. For example, if after being sealed, then a divorce or death occurs, and the man remarries, but is not sealed to his second wife, any subsequent children would not be born in the covenant if the second wife had never been sealed before. Now, if she was still sealed to a previous husband, then the child would be born in the covenant. Edited February 13, 2015 by classylady Quote
classylady Posted February 13, 2015 Report Posted February 13, 2015 I don't understand. If an ex-spouse is excommunicated, the sealing is no longer in effect. Basically, it does not exist. Why would you need to get a dissolution of a non-existent sealing? Vort, I don't completely know the answer to your question. But, I do know that there is a degree of difference between excommunication and a sealing cancellation. With excommunication, the sealing is revoked. Maybe another term could be "inert", but that word doesn't quite explain it either. If the excommunicated person repents, is rebaptized, then the temple blessings can be restored through the ordinance of restoration of blessings. There is no need to have the sealing redone. And, the spouse of an excommunicated person does not lose their sealing blessings. With a cancellation of sealing, both parties lose the blessings of that sealing. Let's say, for example, a couple divorces. They have the sealing cancelled. After a number of years pass, they are both single again through divorce, and they decide to remarry. If they choose to be sealed, they would have to go to the temple again and have a new temple sealing. There is no restoration of blessings in that case. Vort 1 Quote
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