mliff Posted July 20, 2010 Report Posted July 20, 2010 In the book of Moses Chapter 6:52 and 57 How come God says the name Jesus Christ to adam, when nowhere in the old testament is Jesus Christ mentioned by name? I just read this section and it just stuck out to me. If anyone can explain this to me id greatly appreciate it. Quote
MarginOfError Posted July 21, 2010 Report Posted July 21, 2010 Because it's an excerpt taken from the poorly named "Joseph Smith Translation." But the JST is more accurately described as commentary. Smith was expounding on the contents of the Old Testament with the vocabulary of the 19th century. The exact words were not as important as the message. Quote
Wingnut Posted July 21, 2010 Report Posted July 21, 2010 Because it's an excerpt taken from the poorly named "Joseph Smith Translation." But the JST is more accurately described as commentary. Smith was expounding on the contents of the Old Testament with the vocabulary of the 19th century. The exact words were not as important as the message.The Book of Moses in the POGP isn't Bible translation. It was received by Joseph Smith by direct revelation. Quote
Just_A_Guy Posted July 21, 2010 Report Posted July 21, 2010 In the book of Moses Chapter 6:52 and 57How come God says the name Jesus Christ to adam, when nowhere in the old testament is Jesus Christ mentioned by name?Heck, even in Jesus Christ's lifetime no one ever called Him that. It would have been "Yeshua ben Yosef".I don't know much about the Adamic language, but I strongly suspect it wasn't English. So I'm not particularly bothered by whatever term Adam (or Moses, recording Adam's experiences) chose to use in describing their Redeemer. Quote
Hemidakota Posted July 21, 2010 Report Posted July 21, 2010 In the book of Moses Chapter 6:52 and 57How come God says the name Jesus Christ to adam, when nowhere in the old testament is Jesus Christ mentioned by name?I just read this section and it just stuck out to me. If anyone can explain this to me id greatly appreciate it. In adding some background to answers already been given, Robert J. Matthews, in the 1973 conference of the Thirty-first Annual Joseph Smith Memorial Sermon explained the background on when the Book of Moses was given and how:The new translation of the Bible by Joseph Smith was a major accomplishment. The Prophet considered it part of his calling and assignment as a Prophet.In his journal he recorded, for December 1, 1831:I resumed the translation of the scriptures, and continued to labor in this branch of my calling with Elder Sidney Rigdon as my scribe. (DHC 1: 238)Many have asked why Joseph Smith made a translation of the Bible. The answer is simple and it is clear. He was commanded of the Lord to do so. The translation process was the means or the system, so to speak, that would put the Prophet in an "asking," inquiring frame of mind, so that he would then receive many revelations on spiritual subjects. Please note that the purpose of the translation was not to point out the errors in the Bible-but to gain all that the Bible had to offer and then to clarify what was there and restore missing information.I shall read to you the words of the Lord concerning what the Prophet was to do with the writings of Moses. This revelation came just previous to his commencement of the translation of the Old Testament, and is published as Moses 1:40-41: And now, Moses, my son, I will speak unto thee concerning this earth upon which thou standest: and thou shalt write the things which I shall speak.And in a day when the children of men shall esteem my words as naught and take many of them from the book which thou shalt write, behold, I will raise up another like unto thee; and they shall be had again among the children of men-among as many as shall believe.No doubt Joseph Smith is the man "like unto Moses," and as recorded here, he was to restore the parts of Moses' writings that had been taken out of the Bible.The call to translate the New Testament is found in D&C 45: 60-61:And now, behold, I say unto you, it shall not be given unto you to know any further concerning this chapter, until the New Testament be translated, and in it all these things shall be made known;Wherefore I give unto you that ye may now translate it, that ye may be prepared for the things to come. You see, the labor would be its own reward. By the process of translating, the Prophet would learn many things he did not know before.President Marion G. Romney made a statement along this same line, which illustrates the operation of the Holy Ghost; Said he: "The way I know when I am speaking by the Spirit is that I learn things I had not previously known."Many of the revelations now in the D&C were received by Joseph Smith while he was translating the Bible. In fact, most of the doctrinal revelations now in the Doctrine and Covenants were received during that period of time, from June 1830-July 1833. This is not a coincidence, but a consequence. Actually, the Prophet's work of translating the Bible was a fundamental part of the building of a dispensation here on the earth in the last days, and I think we have generally overlooked the importance of this valuable work of the ProphetFirst, we should recognize again that the Book of Moses and Matt. 24 in the Pearl of Great Price are excerpts from the new translation. Think of the great doctrinal content of these passages. There is the revelation of the gospel to Adam, Enoch and Noah. There is the great emphasis on the devil, in the pre-mortal council and in tempting the sons of Adam. There is also the great vision of Moses and his encounter with the devil as recorded in Moses Chapter 1. Quote
Hemidakota Posted July 21, 2010 Report Posted July 21, 2010 (edited) Regards to the how it was done, Robert continued and stated: The Prophet and Oliver Cowdery began the translation in June 1830, using an edition of the King James Version printed in 1828 by H. and E. Phinney in Cooperstown, New York. This Bible they had purchased on 8 October 1829 for $3.75 from the E.B. Grandin Bookstore in Palmyra, New York. It appears that the Prophet would read from the King James text and dictate to the scribe, who would record the material. The first scribe in point of time was Oliver Cowdery, the second John Whitmer. The third and major scribe was Sidney Rigdon. Other persons helped to a lesser degree. The main translation activity was completed by 2 July 1833, after which there was considerable revision and editing to prepare the document for publication. This procedure resulted in the original draft's being supplemented or in some instances even replaced with a revised and edited copy...Four items serve to illustrate the revelatory process of the translation. First, on page 3 of the Old Testament manuscript is found this caption, "A Revelation given to the elders of the Church of Christ on the First Book of Moses." This extends to material from Genesis 1:1 through Genesis 3. On page 8 of the manuscript there is another caption, "A Revelation concerning Adam after he had been driven out of the Garden of Eden." Second, on page 1 of the New Testament manuscript are these words, which indicate how the Brethren felt about what they were doing: "A Translation of the New Testament Translated by the Power of God." Third, is the wording of Doctrine and Covenants 76:15-18, given in connection with the vision of the degrees of glory. We read in this case that as the Prophet and Sidney were doing the work of translation, they came to the text of John 5:29, and it was revealed to them that it should read differently than it stands in the King James Version.Concerning this rewording the Prophet said: "Now this caused us to marvel, for it was given unto us of the Spirit." (D&C 76:18.) The words "given to us of the Spirit" are a clue to the process of translation.The fourth illustration is from Doctrine and Covenants 45:60-62 and is a confirmation of the other three, showing that the process was a learning activity. We particularly note these words: "It shall not be given unto you to know any further concerning this chapter until the New Testament be translated, and in it all these things shall be made known." (D&C 45:60; italics added.) This clearly attests to the fact that the translation was to be a learning experience to the Prophet, which would bring him to an understanding of things heretofore not known by him. He was not reading the Bible in order to find errors so that he could offer his premeditated corrections. Rather, he was by divine appointment searching the text for its intended meaning, and in the process the Lord gave him knowledge to clarify and purify the text and even to restore lost material where necessary. (P. 180-181)Joseph Smith Translation of the Bible by the Prophet Joseph Smith and his scribes chiefly during the years from 1830 to 1833, with some additional revisions until his death in June 1844. It consists of a manuscript of 477 pages, each measuring approximately eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches. Edited July 21, 2010 by Hemidakota Quote
Hemidakota Posted July 21, 2010 Report Posted July 21, 2010 Heck, even in Jesus Christ's lifetime no one ever called Him that. It would have been "Yeshua ben Yosef".I don't know much about the Adamic language, but I strongly suspect it wasn't English. So I'm not particularly bothered by whatever term Adam (or Moses, recording Adam's experiences) chose to use in describing their Redeemer.Which name did the Brother of Jared heard after the veil was dropped when seeking GOD to touch the stones? Quote
Hemidakota Posted July 21, 2010 Report Posted July 21, 2010 Heck, even in Jesus Christ's lifetime no one ever called Him that. It would have been "Yeshua ben Yosef".I don't know much about the Adamic language, but I strongly suspect it wasn't English. So I'm not particularly bothered by whatever term Adam (or Moses, recording Adam's experiences) chose to use in describing their Redeemer.Which name did the Brother of Jared hear after the veil was dropped when seeking GOD to touch the stones? Quote
rameumptom Posted July 21, 2010 Report Posted July 21, 2010 Joseph Smith's "translation" is more of a midrash or commentary than an actual "translation". Why? Because there are no existing ancient documents that contain what is found in the Book of Moses. The Book of Moses is revealed revelation, given directly to Joseph Smith in terms that he would understand. The name "Jesus Christ" actually means "The Anointed Messiah." It is possible that the Book of Moses actually refers to the Lord in this way, but Joseph Smith could have anglicized it into Christ's modern title-name. Quote
Vanhin Posted July 21, 2010 Report Posted July 21, 2010 Doesn't seem like such a great feat to me. The name by which the Only Begotten would be known, is Jesus Christ. The Lord revealed the name by which He would be known to the Brother of Jared, and by an angel to Nephi. It is no feat at all to God, who dwells on a "globe like a sea of glass and fire, where all things for their glory are manifest, past, present, and future, and are continually before [Him]" (D&C 130:7) and whose plan this is.As to why the name is not specifically mentioned in the Bible, I don't know for sure. Perhaps the Lord did not mean to reveal it to Israel generally as He did to Nephi at that time, or perhaps that is part of the plain and precious doctrine that is missing. However, in the Book of Mormon we read that the prophets all knew about Christ.14 Yea, did he not bear record that the Son of God should come? And as he lifted up the brazen serpent in the wilderness, even so shall he be lifted up who should come.15 And as many as should look upon that serpent should live, even so as many as should look upon the Son of God with faith, having a contrite spirit, might live, even unto that life which is eternal.16 And now behold, Moses did not only testify of these things, but also all the holy prophets, from his days even to the days of Abraham. (Helaman 8:14-16)Regards,Vanhin Quote
MarginOfError Posted July 21, 2010 Report Posted July 21, 2010 Doesn't seem like such a great feat to me. The name by which the Only Begotten would be known, is Jesus Christ. The Lord revealed the name by which He would be known to the Brother of Jared, and by an angel to Nephi. It is no feat at all to God, who dwells on a "globe like a sea of glass and fire, where all things for their glory are manifest, past, present, and future, and are continually before [Him]" (D&C 130:7) and whose plan this is.As to why the name is not specifically mentioned in the Bible, I don't know for sure. Perhaps the Lord did not mean to reveal it to Israel generally as He did to Nephi at that time, or perhaps that is part of the plain and precious doctrine that is missing. However, in the Book of Mormon we read that the prophets all knew about Christ.14 Yea, did he not bear record that the Son of God should come? And as he lifted up the brazen serpent in the wilderness, even so shall he be lifted up who should come.15 And as many as should look upon that serpent should live, even so as many as should look upon the Son of God with faith, having a contrite spirit, might live, even unto that life which is eternal.16 And now behold, Moses did not only testify of these things, but also all the holy prophets, from his days even to the days of Abraham. (Helaman 8:14-16)Regards,VanhinYour point is debatable--primarily because the Book of Mormon is a translation. Was it revealed to the brother of Joseph that the name of the Savior would be Jesus Christ, or did Joseph Smith use the name Jesus Christ because that's what people would recognize? Without access to the original text (and the means to translate them) we'll never really know. Quote
Dravin Posted July 21, 2010 Report Posted July 21, 2010 Your point is debatable--primarily because the Book of Mormon is a translation. Was it revealed to the brother of Joseph that the name of the Savior would be Jesus Christ, or did Joseph Smith use the name Jesus Christ because that's what people would recognize? Without access to the original text (and the means to translate them) we'll never really know.Personally such seems reasonable, that Joseph Smith took Messiah (or something to that intent) and made it Jesus Christ, much like how Jacob wouldn't have ended his book with a French word. Quote
rameumptom Posted July 22, 2010 Report Posted July 22, 2010 Personally such seems reasonable, that Joseph Smith took Messiah (or something to that intent) and made it Jesus Christ, much like how Jacob wouldn't have ended his book with a French word.You mean Jacob didn't know French? Quote
Dravin Posted July 22, 2010 Report Posted July 22, 2010 You mean Jacob didn't know French? Actually it's funny that word is the source of one of the most pathetic Anti I've ever heard."Jacob wouldn't have spoken French! This is proof it's all fake!"Um guys? He wouldn't have spoken English either, that's why it's a translation. It'd be like picking up a KJV and pointing out the Sermon on the Mount and claiming, "Ahah! Christ wouldn't have spoken English, and modern English at that! Proof it's all fake!" Quote
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