ldsz Posted November 24, 2012 Report Share Posted November 24, 2012 There is a chapter of Isaiah (chapter 49) quoted in 1 Nephi 21. Verse 25 has a Joseph Smith translation. Why does the Book of Mormon have a Joseph Smith translation? My testimony is in no way hanging on a thread over this question, but just a matter of curiosity. Shouldn't the Book of Mormon have the correct translation since it was put there by the hands of a prophet and left unadulterated unlike the Bible? Thanks! Hope my question makes sense. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pam Posted November 24, 2012 Report Share Posted November 24, 2012 Didn't Joseph Smith translate from the plates as it was given to him? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Wingnut Posted November 24, 2012 Report Share Posted November 24, 2012 The point of the Joseph Smith Translation is that the Bible was not left unadulterated. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JayJ Posted November 24, 2012 Report Share Posted November 24, 2012 I don't know that there is one definite answer to this question. Several other questions pop into mind such as: *Were the writings of Isaiah already corrupted to a degree prior to being recorded on the Brass Plates? *Was it a scribal error by Nephi as he transferred the words from the Brass Plates to his golden Small Plates? (I don't feel this is likely, but then again, what do I know?) *Did Joseph Smith translate the characters exactly as written, or did he correct errors that he may have found? Or did he translate themes and ideas along with delivering proper names (by spelling)? *If I understand correctly, JST was not so much a translation but rather it was revealed through the Spirit as he corrected passages of scripture as they were originally given by the Spirit. While these questions don't answer your original question, hopefully they alert us to the fact that we just don't know everything there is to know regarding Joseph Smith's opportunity and the mechanics of translating the Book of Mormon as he did so by the gift and power of God. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bytebear Posted November 27, 2012 Report Share Posted November 27, 2012 Also, the Joseph Smith Translation was never completed, so Smith may have had times where he was inspired (Book of Moses) but others where his translation was more an interpretation or clarification but not an actual re-correcting to the original text. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Blackmarch Posted November 27, 2012 Report Share Posted November 27, 2012 There is a chapter of Isaiah (chapter 49) quoted in 1 Nephi 21. Verse 25 has a Joseph Smith translation. Why does the Book of Mormon have a Joseph Smith translation? My testimony is in no way hanging on a thread over this question, but just a matter of curiosity. Shouldn't the Book of Mormon have the correct translation since it was put there by the hands of a prophet and left unadulterated unlike the Bible?Thanks! Hope my question makes sense.thats in the book of mormon because Nephi quoted isiah. Nephi translated that as he felt inspired to.As for how its translated today.. who knows? we don't have an original to compare, nor is the language, custom, and context understood exactly as it was when it was first writ.Its also a dangerious assumption to think that the bible is unadulterated as well. Language changes over time, and rarely is a translation perfect, even under the best of conditions.As a believer that Joseph smith was a prophet and was inspired by god it's nice to see that little has changed between the two. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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