askandanswer Posted March 6, 2021 Report Posted March 6, 2021 8 Yea, his weeping for Zion I have seen, and I will cause that he shall mourn for her no longer; for his days of rejoicing are come unto the aremission of his sins, and the manifestations of my blessings upon his works. This revelation was given in April 1830. In this revelation, God told Joseph that "I (God) will cause that he (Joseph) shall mourn for her (Zion) no longer." Does this mean that after April 1830, Joseph no longer mourned for Zion? Quote
mordorbund Posted March 7, 2021 Report Posted March 7, 2021 6 hours ago, askandanswer said: 8 Yea, his weeping for Zion I have seen, and I will cause that he shall mourn for her no longer; for his days of rejoicing are come unto the aremission of his sins, and the manifestations of my blessings upon his works. This revelation was given in April 1830. In this revelation, God told Joseph that "I (God) will cause that he (Joseph) shall mourn for her (Zion) no longer." Does this mean that after April 1830, Joseph no longer mourned for Zion? I think Joseph wept for Zion when they were cast out of Missouri. But I don't think the Zion in this verse is the same Zion as later in the revelations. For a year Joseph's revelations encouraged believers to establish Zion and establish the cause of Zion (see D&C 6, 11, 12, and 14). This was before the revelation on the gathering to Zion; it was before the inspired translation of Genesis that would describe Enoch's Zion. So what is this cause of Zion Joseph was occupied with, that kept showing up in his revelations? And would this phrase have any meaning to his contemporaries? askandanswer 1 Quote
CV75 Posted March 7, 2021 Report Posted March 7, 2021 (edited) 22 hours ago, askandanswer said: 8 Yea, his weeping for Zion I have seen, and I will cause that he shall mourn for her no longer; for his days of rejoicing are come unto the aremission of his sins, and the manifestations of my blessings upon his works. This revelation was given in April 1830. In this revelation, God told Joseph that "I (God) will cause that he (Joseph) shall mourn for her (Zion) no longer." Does this mean that after April 1830, Joseph no longer mourned for Zion? Inasmuch as he was no longer mourning because her restoration had not yet been initiated through the earthly organization, I think yes. "Mourn for" can mean grievous anticipation. Edited March 7, 2021 by CV75 Quote
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