'Only Begotten Son'

[CraziCrow]

Firstly, its my first post. So HI everyone :)

I was jsut wondering I have been a member for about 6 months now, and while perusing the Pearl of Great Price a question came to me. Why in that, particularly the book of Moses, and sometimes in the old testiment does Christ refer to himself in the third person so often?

It would just seem to cause confusion to someone like me...however i am sure there is a reason and i was just wondering if someone could help me out with it. Thanks

See you all around

[tubaloth]

The reason is because Christ acts in behave of our Heavenly Father. Christ really is the mediator between God and Man. At times when Christ speaks for the Father he is actually Speaking as if he was the Father. That leads to times where as he is speaking as the Father (what the Father would say) he ends up talking about himself (Jesus Christ).

Expect for a couple of times when Heavenly Father Introduces his Son, everything else we get from the Father is through Jesus Christ.

[Hemidakota]

Remember also, it is the style of the writer also may have some factor here. Anyone that received a divine witness will attest, this does not happen.

[CraziCrow]

Ok then. THanks alot for that guys, it clears things up for me =)

[Hemidakota]

When we view both Moses and Abraham account on whom spoke first on being the Savior is another lesson of writer’s observational point.

[CraziCrow]

how do you mean?

[Dr T]

Christ was "unique"-that's what that means.

[Dravin]

IIRC you see a similar thing in Revelations, where the angel in John's vision speaks in the first person as Christ a few times.

Edited May 18, 2009 by Dravin

[Traveler]

Part of the problem is in the translation and interpretation of scriptures that come to us from languages that have different forms for the formal and common. Even in our own culture a person with power of attorney with represent others both in speaking and in written contracts in the first person.

The Traveler

[Hemidakota]

Crazicrow, Moses accounts Lucifer spoke first [Moses 4:1-2]

1 And I, the Lord God, spake unto Moses, saying: That Satan, whom thou hast commanded in the name of mine Only Begotten, is the same which was from the beginning, and he came before me, saying—Behold, here am I, send me, I will be thy son, and I will redeem all mankind, that one soul shall not be lost, and surely eI will do it; wherefore give me thine honor.

2 But, behold, my Beloved Son, which was my Beloved and Chosen from the beginning, said unto me—Father, thy dwill be done, and the glory be thine forever.

Now Abraham observational viewpoint;

24 And there stood one among them that was like unto God, and he said unto those who were with him: We will go down, for there is space there, and we will take of these materials, and we will make an earth whereon these may dwell; 25 And we will prove them herewith, to see if they will do all things whatsoever the Lord their God shall command them;

26 And they who keep their first estate shall be added upon; and they who keep not their first estate shall not have glory in the same kingdom with those who keep their first estate; and they who keep their second estate shall have glory added upon their heads for ever and ever.

27 And the Lord said: Whom shall I send? And one answered like unto the Son of Man: Here am I, send me. And another send the first. answered and said: Here am I, send me. And the Lord said: I will

28 And the second was angry, and kept not his first estate; and, at that day, many followed after him.

Notable difference of two writers....

[CraziCrow]

oh ok, i get you now. Thanks =)

[Just_A_Guy]

The reason is because Christ acts in behave of our Heavenly Father. Christ really is the mediator between God and Man. At times when Christ speaks for the Father he is actually Speaking as if he was the Father. That leads to times where as he is speaking as the Father (what the Father would say) he ends up talking about himself (Jesus Christ).

A process also known as "divine investiture of authority".