Book of Mormon and the Priesthood


apexviper13
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Someone asked me question and I'm not sure. How did people in the Book of Mormon receive the Priesthood when Lehi was of the tribe of Manasseh?

Made another thread because of a typo in the title of the other. Lock the other one. Thanks.

I responded to your other thread. Looks like you already figured out the answer. Prophet leaders like Lehi held the higher Priesthood, which was not confined to just one tribe as was the Levitical Priesthood.

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I responded to your other thread. Looks like you already figured out the answer. Prophet leaders like Lehi held the higher Priesthood, which was not confined to just one tribe as was the Levitical Priesthood.

And since Lehi held the higher Priesthood that also means he had the authority to bestow the Priesthood on others.

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The Aaronic (or Levitical) Priesthood thus functioned only within the tribe of Levi, and the right to have it conferred upon one was determined by lineage and worthiness. As part of his rationale that the law of Moses was fulfilled, Paul makes a point of the contrast between the lineal requirement of the lesser priesthood and the nonlineal Melchizedek Priesthood, which was not confined to those of one tribe (see JST Heb. 7:1–3; Heb. 7:11–14). The lineal restrictions of that Aaronic (Levitical) Priesthood were lifted when the law of Moses was fulfilled, and thereafter the offices of the priesthood were conferred upon worthy men without limitation to the tribe of Levi. This appears to be the case in the Church as recorded in the New Testament and in the Book of Mormon (where there were no Levites), and is presently operative in the Church as it has been restored in the latter days.

Aaronic Priesthood

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Also, we don't know what tribes Zoram or the sons of Ishmael were from. It's also possible to have more than one tribe as blood ancestors, but I don't know if, for the purposes of GOD, only one is given as the "right" lineage (i.e., Lehi could have had a little Levitical ancestry with Manasseh being predominant).

I favor the "Melchezidek priesthood" answer, though.

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President Joseph Fielding Smith wrote:

“The Nephites were descendants of Joseph. There were no Levites who accompanied Lehi to the Western Hemisphere. Under these conditions the Nephites officiated by virtue of the Melchizedek Priesthood from the days of Lehi to the days of the appearance of our Savior among them (Answers to Gospel Questions, 1:124-26).

It is not known the exact time, manner, or location but they did receive it. My personal opinion was that it was contained in the 126 lost pages of the book of Lehi.

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The answer is right there in the scriptures--D&C 107:

13 The second priesthood is called the Priesthood of Aaron, because it was conferred upon Aaron and his seed, throughout all their generations.

14 Why it is called the lesser priesthood is because it is an appendage to the greater, or the Melchizedek Priesthood, and has power in administering outward ordinances.

15 The bishopric is the presidency of this priesthood, and holds the keys or authority of the same.

16 No man has a legal right to this office, to hold the keys of this priesthood, except he be a literal descendant of Aaron.

17 But as a high priest of the Melchizedek Priesthood has authority to officiate in all the lesser offices, he may officiate in the office of bishop when no literal descendant of Aaron can be found, provided he is called and cset apart and ordained unto this power by the hands of the Presidency of the Melchizedek Priesthood.

18 The power and authority of the higher, or Melchizedek Priesthood, is to hold the keys of all the spiritual blessings of the church—

Conferred authority from God trumps authority by lineage. Even one who is a literal descendant of Aaron must still be called by prophecy, by the laying on of hands, by those who are in authority to preach the gospel and administer the ordinances thereof.

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The answer is right there in the scriptures--D&C 107:

13 The second priesthood is called the Priesthood of Aaron, because it was conferred upon Aaron and his seed, throughout all their generations.

14 Why it is called the lesser priesthood is because it is an appendage to the greater, or the Melchizedek Priesthood, and has power in administering outward ordinances.

15 The bishopric is the presidency of this priesthood, and holds the keys or authority of the same.

16 No man has a legal right to this office, to hold the keys of this priesthood, except he be a literal descendant of Aaron.

17 But as a high priest of the Melchizedek Priesthood has authority to officiate in all the lesser offices, he may officiate in the office of bishop when no literal descendant of Aaron can be found, provided he is called and cset apart and ordained unto this power by the hands of the Presidency of the Melchizedek Priesthood.

18 The power and authority of the higher, or Melchizedek Priesthood, is to hold the keys of all the spiritual blessings of the church—

Conferred authority from God trumps authority by lineage. Even one who is a literal descendant of Aaron must still be called by prophecy, by the laying on of hands, by those who are in authority to preach the gospel and administer the ordinances thereof.

That's probably the best answer I've gotten.

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It explains perfectly why Lehi and descendants didn't have Aaronic priesthood but doesn't really explain how they received the Melchizedek priesthood, especially since no one in Jerusalem had it at the time.

The prophet Jeremiah was a contemporary of Lehi.

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No prophet had the greater priesthood until Christ restored it when He organized His church. It was taken from the earth in Moses time and replaced with the lesser, or preparatory priesthood until that time. It's in D&C 100 something (I think 107)

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I'm not aware of any particular scripture that gets quite that absolute. Feel free to show me otherwise, but until I see one I'm inclined towards to Teachings of the Prophet Joseph Smith at 181:

Different Degrees of the Priesthood of Melchizedek

"Answer to the question, Was the Priesthood of Melchizedek taken away when Moses died? All Priesthood is Melchizedek, but there are different portions or degrees of it. That portion which brought Moses to speak with God face to face was taken away; but that which brought the ministry of angels remained. All the prophets had the Melchizedek Priesthood and were ordained by God himself."

There's room for some ambiguity here if you think of Aaronic priesthood as an appendage of the Melchizedek priesthood; but the statement that the prophets were "ordained by God himself" and the context about the "portion which brought Moses to speak with God" seems to indicate that the OT prophets enjoyed the full-fledged Melchizedek priesthood, even though Israel's theocratic/temple priesthood lacked it.

Edited by Just_A_Guy
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I love how there always seems to be a quote from Joseph Smith to refute anything said by Joseph Smith :D

Before I err more I just want to reemphasize my point that the Aaronic priesthood relied on linage but the Melchizedek did not. That explains why Lehi had the priesthood, i.e. authority to ordain others etc, while not being of the tribe of Levi.

I was basing my knowledge of my previous fact on section 107 of D&C (toward the beginning) and Jesus the Christ. Elder Talmage explains that John the Baptist couldn't "baptize with fire and the Holy Ghost" because he didn't have the higher priesthood. This is also backed up in Hebrews (ch 7?) a little where Paul explains the importance of the Melchizedek priesthood.

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Joseph Smith received the priesthood from angelic visitors (namely Peter, James and John). So, perhaps Lehi was given the priesthood keys to administer in the Americas. Just because we don't know the line of succession, does not mean the line is not there.

That's been the consensus here so far. The JS received the lesser priesthood from John the Baptist and the greater from the three you mentioned.

As I stated in an earlier post, I suspect Lehi received the greater priesthood in a similar way JS received it.

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I was basing my knowledge of my previous fact on section 107 of D&C (toward the beginning) and Jesus the Christ. Elder Talmage explains that John the Baptist couldn't "baptize with fire and the Holy Ghost" because he didn't have the higher priesthood. This is also backed up in Hebrews (ch 7?) a little where Paul explains the importance of the Melchizedek priesthood.

Interesting re John the Baptist. Doesn't D&C 107 say he was ordained at the age of 8 days? And as I recall Talmage makes the argument that, had the Romans not been meddling in the selection of the Jewish high priest, John had the lineal right to that office.

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