askandanswer

Doctrine and Covenants 10:52

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Its my understanding, in part derived from the section summary at the start of the section 10, that in many of the verses preceding verse 52, the Lord is talking about the Book of Mormon and its coming forth in the latter days. And then in verse 52 it says

52  And now, behold, according to their faith in their prayers will I bring this part of my gospel to the knowledge of my people.  Behold, I do not bring it to destroy that which they have received, but to build it up.

 Doctrine and Covenants | Section 10:52)

The wording of this verse suggests that the Book of Mormon is only “part of my gospel.” If it is the case that the Book of Mormon is only part of the gospel how would we then reconcile that idea with the idea that the Book of Mormon contains the fullness of the gospel? How can it simultaneously be both a part and a fullness? What am I missing here?

Edited by askandanswer

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The gold plates had a sealed portion. I don't think the Book of Mormon does. Doctrine and Covenants 20:9 and 20:5 both refer to the Book of Mormon as containing the fulness of the gospel. Doctrine and Covenants 10: 38 - 45 suggests that the pages that were lost are not as valuable as the pages that were not lost so I don't think we have lost anything of real signficance as a result of the missing 116 pages.

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2 hours ago, askandanswer said:

Its my understanding, in part derived from the section summary at the start of the section 10, that in many of the verses preceding verse 52, the Lord is talking about the Book of Mormon and its coming forth in the latter days. And then in verse 52 it says

52  And now, behold, according to their faith in their prayers will I bring this part of my gospel to the knowledge of my people.  Behold, I do not bring it to destroy that which they have received, but to build it up.

 Doctrine and Covenants | Section 10:52)

The wording of this verse suggests that the Book of Mormon is only “part of my gospel.” If it is the case that the Book of Mormon is only part of the gospel how would we then reconcile that idea with the idea that the Book of Mormon contains the fullness of the gospel? How can it simultaneously be both a part and a fullness? What am I missing here?

Seems like this is just a tautology based question. The words “this”, “part”, “my gospel” can all refer to many different things. 
 

We can’t read the mind of God, but we can hear his words. And he has said those words above, which are more vague than deliberate, and he has said the Book of Mormon contains the fullness of the gospel.

I would say whatever the quotation you posted means, it has to fit in with what we know about the Book of Mormon containing the fullness of the gospel.

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While we speak of the Book of Mormon containing the fullness of the gospel the Angel Moroni when appearing to Joseph Smith narrows it down even further as reported by Joseph: "He also said that the fulness of the everlasting Gospel was contained in it, as delivered by the Savior to the ancient inhabitants;" And since the coming forth of the Book of Mormon we have received the Doctrine and Covenants, Pearl of Great Price and the continuing revelations of modern prophets. This is all in addition to the innumerable personal revelations received by individuals that don't count as "official" doctrine. So let's not confuse the fullness of the gospel with a fullness of knowledge. BUT the fullness of the Gospel of Jesus Christ is the key to obtaining a fullness of knowledge. Have you ever wondered why the doctrine of Christ abruptly ends after receiving the Holy Ghost with simply "endure to the end" when we know there is so much more to do? It's because by obtaining the Holy Ghost and living the teachings of Christ we can gain access to all truth.

D&C 122:26 God shall give unto you knowledge by his Holy Spirit, yea, by the unspeakable gift of the Holy Ghost, that has not been revealed since the world was until now;
            27 Which our forefathers have awaited with anxious expectation to be revealed in the last times, which their minds were pointed to by the angels, as held in reserve for the fulness of their glory;
            28 A time to come in the which nothing shall be withheld, whether there be one God or many gods, they shall be manifest.
            29 All thrones and dominions, principalities and powers, shall be revealed and set forth upon all who have endured valiantly for the gospel of Jesus Christ.
            30 And also, if there be bounds set to the heavens or to the seas, or to the dry land, or to the sun, moon, or stars—
            31 All the times of their revolutions, all the appointed days, months, and years, and all the days of their days, months, and years, and all their glories, laws, and set times, shall be revealed in the days of the dispensation of the fulness of times—
            32 According to that which was ordained in the midst of the Council of the Eternal God of all other gods before this world was, that should be reserved unto the finishing and the end thereof, when every man shall enter into his eternal presence and into his immortal rest.

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On 3/25/2020 at 4:36 PM, askandanswer said:

Its my understanding, in part derived from the section summary at the start of the section 10, that in many of the verses preceding verse 52, the Lord is talking about the Book of Mormon and its coming forth in the latter days. And then in verse 52 it says

52  And now, behold, according to their faith in their prayers will I bring this part of my gospel to the knowledge of my people.  Behold, I do not bring it to destroy that which they have received, but to build it up.

 Doctrine and Covenants | Section 10:52)

The wording of this verse suggests that the Book of Mormon is only “part of my gospel.” If it is the case that the Book of Mormon is only part of the gospel how would we then reconcile that idea with the idea that the Book of Mormon contains the fullness of the gospel? How can it simultaneously be both a part and a fullness? What am I missing here?

Ur missing the Bible part. Their prayers would be the prayers of the writers. Enos for example. This part is the book of Mormon. The other part is the Bible. There are still more parts to be revealed when we are prepared or it is needful that we should have them.

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2 hours ago, brotherofJared said:

There are still more parts to be revealed when we are prepared or it is needful that we should have them.

There's been a bit of discussion in the topic "The timing of truth" which I see you have contributed to, about whether or not God reveals truth before, or only when, people are prepared for them. I've thought about the many good responses to that topic and I'm still not sure what the answer is.   

Edited by askandanswer

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Well, God revealed, very early on, the sacred nature of marriage in that it should be permanent and then amended it because we weren't ready for it. I think any truth we get, we're ready for it. Sometimes, it only to an individual. Sometimes to the church. Sometimes to the world. When the truth that Christ lives is presented to the world in unquestionable fashion, a great many will not be ready for it but a lot of us will be. 

The portion of the gospel that was discussed in the OP is simply referring to the Book of Mormon's portion added to the Bible. I do not believe everyone was ready for that, but certainly, there were some.

We receive light and truth as soon as we are able to. Whether or not the rest of the church is able to receive it is another question. My experience is that we can share what we've learned in small and intimate groups, but trying to force the church or disagree with leaders before it has been revealed to the body is a bad course of action. The Scout leader that sued the church over a black patrol leader not being allowed to hold that position only got him excommunicated and then about a year or two later, the church changed its policy.  (I don't want to make this about race and the priesthood, but; I think that one was delayed as well because we weren't ready to receive it.)

Edited by brotherofJared

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On 3/25/2020 at 5:36 PM, askandanswer said:

Its my understanding, in part derived from the section summary at the start of the section 10, that in many of the verses preceding verse 52, the Lord is talking about the Book of Mormon and its coming forth in the latter days. And then in verse 52 it says

52  And now, behold, according to their faith in their prayers will I bring this part of my gospel to the knowledge of my people.  Behold, I do not bring it to destroy that which they have received, but to build it up.

 Doctrine and Covenants | Section 10:52)

The wording of this verse suggests that the Book of Mormon is only “part of my gospel.” If it is the case that the Book of Mormon is only part of the gospel how would we then reconcile that idea with the idea that the Book of Mormon contains the fullness of the gospel? How can it simultaneously be both a part and a fullness? What am I missing here?

I believe that there is a concept expressed in several words that by themselves are incomplete.  The words are - complete, perfect, whole and holy - and if you like we can add fullness of the gospel.  It is my belief that for such things and especially the concept of the "fullness of the gospel" -- that some think this is all about doctrine and that doctrine is, in essence, the literal meaning of scripture.  I do not believe doctrine is capable being or bringing the fullness of the gospel.  I believe the fullness of the gospel comes through the Law of G-d, the ordinances and the everlasting covenant that are given by and testify of Christ.  The Book of Mormon testifies of these things and that Jesus is the Christ and savior of all mankind - this is the beginning of understanding the fullness of the gospel which first step is baptism and given as example by Christ.

 

The Traveler

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